Archive for August 2018

The three basic variables that make up the life history of an organism are

Naim 13:30

The three basic variables that make up the life history of an organism are




A) life expectancy, birth rate, and death rate.
B) number of reproductive females in the population, age structure of the population, and life expectancy.
C) age when reproduction begins, how often reproduction occurs, and how many offspring are produced per reproductive episode.
D) how often reproduction occurs, life expectancy of females in the population, and number of offspring per reproductive episode.
E) the number of reproductive females in the population, how often reproduction occurs, and death rate.



Answer: C

Natural selection involves energetic trade-offs between

Naim 13:30

Natural selection involves energetic trade-offs between




A) choosing how many offspring to produce over the course of a lifetime and how long to live.
B) producing large numbers of gametes when employing internal fertilization versus fewer numbers of gametes when employing external fertilization.
C) the emigration of individuals when they are no longer reproductively capable or committing suicide.
D) increasing the number of individuals produced during each reproductive episode with a corresponding decrease in parental care.
E) high survival rates of offspring and the cost of parental care.



Answer: E

Which of the following is an example of Batesian mimicry?

Naim 13:28

Which of the following is an example of Batesian mimicry?




A) an insect that resembles a twig
B) a butterfly that resembles a leaf
C) a nonvenomous snake that looks like a venomous snake
D) a fawn with fur coloring that camouflages it in the forest environment
E) a snapping turtle that uses its tongue to mimic a worm, thus attracting fish



Answer: C

Which of the following is an example of aposematic coloration?

Naim 13:28

Which of the following is an example of aposematic coloration?




A) stripes of a skunk
B) eye color in humans
C) green color of a plant
D) colors of an insect-pollinated flower
E) a katydid whose wings look like a dead leaf



Answer: A

Which of the following best describes resource partitioning?

Naim 13:28

Which of the following best describes resource partitioning? 




A) competitive exclusion that results in the success of the superior species
B) slight variations in niche that allow similar species to coexist
C) two species that can coevolve to share identical niches
D) differential resource utilization that results in a decrease in community species diversity
E) a climax community that is reached when no new niches are available



Answer: B

Two barnacles, Balanus and Chthamalus, can both survive on the lower rocks just above the low-tide line on the Scottish coast, but only Balanus actually does so, with Chthamalus adopting a higher zone. Which of the following best accounts for this niche separation?

Naim 13:27

Two barnacles, Balanus and Chthamalus, can both survive on the lower rocks just above the low-tide line on the Scottish coast, but only Balanus actually does so, with Chthamalus adopting a higher zone. Which of the following best accounts for this niche separation? 




A) competitive exclusion
B) predation of Chthamalus by Balanus
C) cooperative displacement
D) primary succession
E) mutualism



Answer: A

The lionfish is a venomous fish found primarily in the Red Sea and the Indian Ocean. In the 1990's, lionfish were accidentally released into the Atlantic Ocean, where they found abundant resources and favorable environmental condition. Which of the following scenarios is most likely to result in the lionfish having a major impact on the community into which they were introduced?

Naim 13:27

The lionfish is a venomous fish found primarily in the Red Sea and the Indian Ocean. In the 1990's, lionfish were accidentally released into the Atlantic Ocean, where they found abundant resources and favorable environmental condition. Which of the following scenarios is most likely to result in the lionfish having a major impact on the community into which they were introduced? 




(A) With no natural predators, the lionfish population will become very large.
(B) Some native species of invertebrates will develop a resistance to lionfish venom.
(C) Random mating will allow the lionfish population to reach Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.
(D)A virus that specifically infects lionfish will become more prevalent.


Answer: A

Which of the following is the most accepted hypothesis as to why invasive species take over communities into which they have been introduced?

Naim 13:26

Which of the following is the most accepted hypothesis as to why invasive species take over communities into which they have been introduced? 

A) Invasive species are more aggressive than native species in competing for the limited resources of the environment. 

B) Invasive species are not held in check by the predators and agents of disease that have always been in place for the native species. 

C) Humans carefully select which species will outcompete nuisance native species. 

D) Invasive species have a higher reproductive potential than native species. 

E) Invasive species come from geographically isolated regions, so when they are introduced to regions where there is more competition, they thrive.


Answer: B

During the course of the formation of a parasite/host relationship, a critical first step in this evolution would be

Naim 13:25

During the course of the formation of a parasite/host relationship, a critical first step in this evolution would be 



A) changing the behavior of the host or intermediate host.
B) developing asexual reproduction.
C) deriving nourishment without killing the host.
D) starting as an ectoparasite and then later becoming an endoparasite.
E) utilizing heterotropic nutrition during infection and autotrophic nutrition during dormancy.



Answer: C

Based on the experimental results, which of the following is the best evolutionary explanation for the occurrence of ARD in C. elegans?

Naim 13:25

Based on the experimental results, which of the following is the best evolutionary explanation for the occurrence of ARD in C. elegans?


a. The ability to enter ARD provides a strong selective advantage because reproduction can occur despite periods of food scarcity

b. acquiring the genes for ARD gives individuals a selective advantage because they produce more offspring than do individuals who cannot enter ARD

c. Individuals who can enter ARD are selected for in the population because they live longer than do individuals who cannot enter ARD

d. individuals who can enter ARD have high fitness because they can reproduce even when food is scarce



Answer: A

Which of the following conclusions is most consistent with the data shown in Figure 2?

Naim 13:24

Which of the following conclusions is most consistent with the data shown in Figure 2?





a. animals that spend 3-5 days in ARD are more likely to survive periods of food scarcity than are animals that spend 13-15 days in ARD

b. animals that spend 30 days in ARD live significantly longer after reintroduction of food than animals that spend only 3 days in ARD

c. The number of days an animal spends in ARD does not significantly affect its time of survival after reintroduction of food

d. The large standard errors of the means make conclusions from the data impossible



Answer: C

Which of the following best describes the reproductive ability of C. elegans following the ARD induced in the first experiment?

Naim 13:24

Which of the following best describes the reproductive ability of C. elegans following the ARD induced in the first experiment?




a. mating with a well-fed male consistently produced more offspring than did reproduction via self-fertilization

b. the numbers of progeny produced by self-ferilization and by mating with well-fed males were not statistically different

c. C. elegans stopped reproducing after 20 days without food

d. there was no relationship between days without food and average brood size


Answer: A

A scientist is evaluating a proposal for raising large numbers of fish in ocean pens for human consumption. As part of the evaluation, the scientist is designing a plan for investigating how fish in the ocean pens might affect nearby ecosystems. Which of the following is the most appropriate factor to use as the dependent variable in the experimental investigation?

Naim 13:23

A scientist is evaluating a proposal for raising large numbers of fish in ocean pens for human consumption. As part of the evaluation, the scientist is designing a plan for investigating how fish in the ocean pens might affect nearby ecosystems. Which of the following is the most appropriate factor to use as the dependent variable in the experimental investigation?




a. the amount of metabolic wastes in the water where the fish are being raised

b. the water temperature in the natural habitat of the fish being studied

c. the types of fish that are preferentially consumed by humans



Answer: A

If a dam is built downstream and prevents salmon migration to the test sites, which of the following most accurately predicts the impact on nitrogen influx?

Naim 13:23

If a dam is built downstream and prevents salmon migration to the test sites, which of the following most accurately predicts the impact on nitrogen influx?


a. nitrogen influx will increase because the bears will no longer store nitrogen from the salmon

b. nitrogen influx will decrease because there will be less bear-salmon interaction

c. nitrogen influx will remain stable because organisms other than bears and salmon will mobilize nitrogen in the environment

d. nitrogen influx will increase because bears will longer lose nitrogen to the salmon



Answer: B

Which of the following pieces of additional data would help further investigate the relationship between bears, salmon, and influx of nitrogen into the local environment?

Naim 13:23

Which of the following pieces of additional data would help further investigate the relationship between bears, salmon, and influx of nitrogen into the local environment?




a. the experimenters should remove the remains of salmon carcasses immediately after the salmon are eaten by the bears and determine the nitrogen content of the carcasses

b. the experimenters should increase the number of bears in the area and measure the amount of nitrogen available for uptake by plants

c. the experimenters should set up a net to catch salmon before they enter the area and then measure nitrogen influx

d. the experimenters should clear cut the trees from the area and determine how much nitrogen remains in the streams



Answer: A

Which of the following most likely describes how the interaction between bears and salmon influences nitrogen dynamics in the environment?

Naim 13:22

Which of the following most likely describes how the interaction between bears and salmon influences nitrogen dynamics in the environment?




a. when bears consume salmon, they leave parts of the carcasses on the ground, which decompose, releasing nitrogen into the environment

b. when salmon swim upstream to spawn, bears migrate to the rivers, and deposit nitrogen from the forest with their excrement

c. bears are a reservoir for nitrogen because they are the top consumer in the environment

d. bears urinate in rivers and streams which provides nitrogen for the salmon



Answer: A

Which of the following statements is best supported by the data?

Naim 13:22

Which of the following statements is best supported by the data?




a. black bears are a keystone species

b. salmon are a keystone species

c. black bear urine is a significant source of nitrogen in the environment

d. the presence of black bears and salmon correlates with a significant increase in nitrogen influx



Answer: D

In the year 2000, specimens of C.taxifolia, a green algae used in tropical aquariums was found off the coast of California. It is native to the Indian Ocean. It is known for aggressive reproduction and an ability to compete with sea grasses. It is currently on an international list of invasive species. Which of the following best predicts the consequences of the introduction of C. taxifolia to the California coast?

Naim 13:22

In the year 2000, specimens of C.taxifolia, a green algae used in tropical aquariums was found off the coast of California. It is native to the Indian Ocean. It is known for aggressive reproduction and an ability to compete with sea grasses. It is currently on an international list of invasive species. Which of the following best predicts the consequences of the introduction of C. taxifolia to the California coast?


a. without natural herbivores or competitors, C. taxifolia will grow rapidly and crowd out native species of producers

b. C. taxifolia will have a hard time establishing itself because it will have to compete against native species of sea grasses, which are better adapted to the environment.

c. C. taxifolia will grow rapidly, leading to an increase in the diversity of producers



Answer: A

The graph above represents the number of individuals in a population of wolves and in a population of moose observed in the same isolated geographic area over a 40 year period. Which of the following statements about the two populations in supported by the graph?

Naim 13:21

The graph above represents the number of individuals in a population of wolves and in a population of moose observed in the same isolated geographic area over a 40 year period. Which of the following statements about the two populations in supported by the graph?




a. the reproductive rate of the wolves was greater than the reproductive rate of the moose

b mutualism allowed the two populations to reproduce while occupying the same ecological niche

c. speciation occurred when the two populations between reproductively isolated from each other

d. The wolves were predators of the moose, which were otherwise reproductively successful



Answer: D

As N approaches K for a certain population, which of the following is predicted by the logistic equation?

Naim 13:20

As N approaches K for a certain population, which of the following is predicted by the logistic equation? 




A) The growth rate will not change.
B) The growth rate will approach zero.
C) The population will show an Allee effect.
D) The population will increase exponentially.
E) The carrying capacity of the environment will increase.



Answer: B

Which of the following communities is most likely to be stable?

Naim 13:19

Which of the following communities is most likely to be stable?




a. one where a keystone predator has been removed

b. one with uniformly spaced vegetation

c. one with high species diversity

d. one that lacks decomposers



Answer: C

In the Arctic Ocean, the predominant primary producers are phytoplankton. Phytoplankton are consumed by zooplankton, which in turn are eaten by codfish. In years when there is more open water (less ice coverage), there are more zooplankton and fish than in years with less open water (more ice coverage). Based on the graph above, the difference is most likely because

Naim 13:19

In the Arctic Ocean, the predominant primary producers are phytoplankton. Phytoplankton are consumed by zooplankton, which in turn are eaten by codfish. In years when there is more open water (less ice coverage), there are more zooplankton and fish than in years with less open water (more ice coverage). Based on the graph above, the difference is most likely because 




(A) when there is less open water, light is blocked from the zooplankton, so they cannot produce as much food for the fish
(B) when there is more open water, the temperature is warmer, so the zooplankton and fish populations increase in size
(C) the ice blocks the light, so in years with more ice coverage, there is less photosynthesis by the phytoplankton
(D) the ice increases the light available for photosynthesis, so primary production increases and zooplankton populations increase in size



Answer: C

Beaked whales feed at various depths, but they defecate at the ocean’s surface. Nitrogen-rich whale feces deposited in surface waters supply nutrients for algae that are eaten by surface dwelling fish. Which of the following best predicts what would happen if the whale population decreased?

Naim 13:19

Beaked whales feed at various depths, but they defecate at the ocean’s surface. Nitrogen-rich whale feces deposited in surface waters supply nutrients for algae that are eaten by surface dwelling fish. Which of the following best predicts what would happen if the whale population decreased?




(A) There would be a reduction in surface nitrogen concentration, which would cause an algal bloom.

(B) The surface fish populations would decline due to reduced populations of algae.

(C) The remaining whales would accumulate mutations at a faster rate.

(D) The remaining whales would be forced to forage in the deepest parts of the ocean.



Answer: B

The data over the duration of the experiment provide the strongest support for which of the following conclusions regarding the effect of the parasite on Tribolium populations?

Naim 13:15

The data over the duration of the experiment provide the strongest support for which of the following conclusions regarding the effect of the parasite on Tribolium populations? 



(A) T. confusum is adversely affected by the parasite, while T. castaneum is not.

(B) T. castaneum is adversely affected by the parasite, while T. confusum is not.

(C) Both T. confusum and T. castaneum are adversely affected by the parasite.

(D) Both T. confusum and T. castaneum show increased fitness in the presence of the parasite.



Answer: B

Which of the following is an example of cryptic coloration?

Naim 13:15

Which of the following is an example of cryptic coloration? 




(A) bands on a coral snake
(B) brown color of tree bark
(C) markings of a viceroy butterfly
(D) colors of an insect-pollinated flower
(E) a "walking stick" insect that resembles a twig



Answer: E

The observation that members of a population are uniformly distributed suggests that

Naim 13:14

The observation that members of a population are uniformly distributed suggests that 




(A) The size of the area occupied by the population is increasing.
(B) Resources are distributed unevenly
(C) The members of the population are competing for access to a resource
(D) The members of the population are neither attracted to nor repelled by one another
(E) The density of the population is low


Answer: C

Undersea landslides can disrupt marine habitats by burying organisms that live on the ocean floor. The graph above shows the size of a population of a certain organism that lives on the ocean floor. The population was affected by a recent landslide at the time indicated on the graph. Which of the following best predicts how the population will be affected by the landslide?

Naim 13:13

Undersea landslides can disrupt marine habitats by burying organisms that live on the ocean floor. The graph above shows the size of a population of a certain organism that lives on the ocean floor. The population was affected by a recent landslide at the time indicated on the graph. Which of the following best predicts how the population will be affected by the landslide?




A) The surviving organisms will evolve into a new species.
B) The reduced population will likely have allelic frequencies that are different from the initial population.
C) The population will adapt to deeper waters to avoid future landslides.
D) The reduced population will have a greater number of different genes than the initial population.



Answer: B

Thrips are insects that feed on rose pollen. Scientists noted that the thrips population increased in the spring and decreased dramatically during the summer. The researchers hypothesized that food abundance was the limiting factor for the population. Which of the following types of data would be most useful for the scientists to collect at regular intervals on a designated test plot of rose plants?

Naim 13:13

Thrips are insects that feed on rose pollen. Scientists noted that the thrips population increased in the spring and decreased dramatically during the summer. The researchers hypothesized that food abundance was the limiting factor for the population. Which of the following types of data would be most useful for the scientists to collect at regular intervals on a designated test plot of rose plants?




A) Amount of sunlight (hours/day)
B) Mean temperature (oC)
C) Density of rose pollen produced (g/m2)
D) Amount of pollen produced by each flower (g/flower)



Answer: C

There is strong evidence that two species of cliff-dwelling birds have nested in the same environment and fed in the same water for thousands of years, with each having stable population sizes. Based on this information, which of the following statements is the best conclusion?

Naim 13:13

There is strong evidence that two species of cliff-dwelling birds have nested in the same environment and fed in the same water for thousands of years, with each having stable population sizes. Based on this information, which of the following statements is the best conclusion? 





(A) One species is a better diver than the other species is.
(B) The two birds compete for food
(C) One species will displace the other
(D) The two birds have different ecological niches that allow coexistence
(E) One species eats a more



Answer: D

Which of the following groups would be most likely to exhibit uniform dispersion?

Naim 13:12

Which of the following groups would be most likely to exhibit uniform dispersion? 



A) red squirrels, who actively defend territories
B) cattails, which grow primarily at edges of lakes and streams
C) dwarf mistletoes, which parasitize particular species of forest tree
D) moths, in a city at night
E) lake trout, which seek out cold, deep water high in dissolved oxygen



Answer: A

The main reason polar regions are cooler than the equator is that

Naim 13:11

The main reason polar regions are cooler than the equator is that 




A) there is more ice at the poles.
B) sunlight strikes the poles at a lower angle.
C) the poles are farther from the sun.
D) the polar atmosphere is thinner and contains fewer greenhouse gases.
E) the poles are permanently tilted away from the sun.



Answer: B

Which of the following levels of ecological organization is arranged in the correct sequence from most to least inclusive?

Naim 13:10

Which of the following levels of ecological organization is arranged in the correct sequence from most to least inclusive? 




A) community, ecosystem, individual, population
B) ecosystem, community, population, individual
C) population, ecosystem, individual, community
D) individual, population, community, ecosystem
E) individual, community, population, ecosystem



Answer: B

Carbon dioxide is passed into a solution of bromothymol blue indicator until the acid solution turns yellow. A sprig of elodea is then placed into this yellow solution. After a few hours in the sunlight, the yellow solution turns blue. The purpose of this experiment is to show that

Naim 13:05

Carbon dioxide is passed into a solution of bromothymol blue indicator until the acid solution turns yellow. A sprig of elodea is then placed into this yellow solution. After a few hours in the sunlight, the yellow solution turns blue. The purpose of this experiment is to show that




(A) oxygen is given off during photosynthesis
(B) carbon dioxide is used during photosynthesis
(C) carbon dioxide is given off as a by-product of photosynthesis
(D) bromthymol blue changes to bromthymol yellow under acid conditions
(E) chlorophyll acting as a photocatalyst is necessary for photosynthesis



Answer: B

All of the following are valid interpretations of these data EXCEPT:

Naim 13:04
A scientist measured the water content of leaves from two different groups of oak trees on three different summer days. One group of leaves, the T group, came from trees that had been defoliated by gypsy moths the previous year. The other leaves, the C group, came from trees which had not been defoliated. The results, in milliliters of water per gram of dry weight, are shown in the table below.

.............June 10 June 30 July 28
T Group 26.8..... 20.4..... 12.7
C Group 32.5.... 28.7...... 22.7

All of the following are valid interpretations of these data EXCEPT: 



(A) C leaves typically contain more water than do T leaves
(B) Both C and T leaves show declines in water content as the summer goes on.
(C) T leaves show greater declines in water content than do C leaves.
(D) Defoliation by gypsy moths has no effect on the water content of next year’s leaves.
(E) Differences in the water content between C and T leaves grow greater as the summer goes on



Answer: D

When are two species said to be in direct competition?

Naim 13:04

When are two species said to be in direct competition?



a. when they are competing for the same resource without easy alternatives

b. when they are competing for similar resources

c. when the are competing for the same resource whether or not their are alternative resources available


Answer: a

Which of the following describes the role of bacteria or fungi in an arid ecosystem?

Naim 13:04

Which of the following describes the role of bacteria or fungi in an arid ecosystem?


a. it coverts radiant energy into chemical energy

b. it directly provides a source of nutrition for animals

c. it is a saprophytic agent restoring inorganic material to the environment

d. it consumes live plants and animals



Answer: c

What is the fundamental difference between matter and energy?

Naim 13:03

What is the fundamental difference between matter and energy? 




A) Matter is cycled through ecosystems; energy is not.
B) Energy is cycled through ecosystems; matter is not.
C) Energy can be converted into matter; matter cannot be converted into energy.
D) Matter can be converted into energy; energy cannot be converted into matter.
E) Matter is used in ecosystems; energy is not



Answer: A

The most likely adaptive significance of this photosynthetic mechanism is to

Naim 13:03

The most likely adaptive significance of this photosynthetic mechanism is to


a. minimize water loss by taking up carbon dioxide at night

b. maximize the production of starch at night

c. maximize the ability to use bright light to take up carbon dioxide

d. maximize water loss during the day so starch can be made

e. minimize starch production during the day



Answer: A

A useful control for the experiment would have included which of the following?

Naim 13:02

A useful control for the experiment would have included which of the following?


I. Expose the plant to 32 hours of continuous moderate light and measure rates of carbon dioxide uptake and tissue starch concentration

II. Expose the plant to 32 hours of continuous dark and measure rates of carbon dioxide uptake and tissue starch concentration

III. Measure the chlorophyll concentration in the plant's leaf tissue

a. I only

b. II only

c. III only

d. I and II only

e. I, II and III



Answer: D

The photosynthetic pattern of this plant species is unusual for which of the following reasons?

Naim 13:02

The photosynthetic pattern of this plant species is unusual for which of the following reasons?


I. It has a higher rate of carbon dioxide uptake during the light period than the dark period

II. It has a higher rate of carbon dioxide uptake during the dark period than during the light period

III. There is a positive correlation between the rate of carbon dioxide uptake and tissue starch concentration

IV. There is an inverse correlation between the rate of carbon dioxide uptake and tissue starch concentration

a. I only

b. II only

c. IV only

d. I and III

e. II and IV



Answer: E

Which of the following is consistent with the data?

Naim 13:02

Which of the following is consistent with the data?


a. the highest rate of carbon dioxide uptake occurs at the beginning of the light period

b. the highest rate of carbon dioxide uptake occurs at the beginning of the dark period

c. the highest rate of carbon dioxide uptake occurs near the end of the dark period

d. the highest starch concentration occurs at the beginning of the light period

e. the lowest starch concentration occurs at the end of the light period


Answer: B

The area covered by tropical rain forest is reduced by millions of hectares per year due to agriculture and logging. which of the following best describes a likely result of tropical rain forest deforestation?

Naim 13:01

The area covered by tropical rain forest is reduced by millions of hectares per year due to agriculture and logging. which of the following best describes a likely result of tropical rain forest deforestation?


a. populations of plants and animals will decrease as more rain forest disappears leading to a decrease in biodiversity

b. an increase of soil moisture will lead to a rapid increase in new vegetation coverage

c. an increase in atmospheric carbon dioxide will lead to higher levels of UV radiation reaching the surface of Earth

d. more oxygen will be available to other organisms as plant numbers decrease


Answer: A

Two students conducted studies to determine the amount of bacteria in hamburgers cooked to different internal temperatures. The students cooked 3 hamburgers: 1 rare, 1 medium, and 1 well-done. The students then took a core from the center of each hamburger and placed each core in a separate petri dish with nutrient agar. Each dish was incubated until colonies formed. The students hypothesized that the rare hamburger core would generate the most bacteria colonies. Eight hundred colonies grew in the dish containing the rare hamburger core, 400 colonies grew in the dish containing the medium hamburger core, and 0 colonies grew in the dish containing the well-done hamburger core. What is the most appropriate next step for the students to take in this study?

Naim 13:01

Two students conducted studies to determine the amount of bacteria in hamburgers cooked to different internal temperatures. The students cooked 3 hamburgers: 1 rare, 1 medium, and 1 well-done. The students then took a core from the center of each hamburger and placed each core in a separate petri dish with nutrient agar. Each dish was incubated until colonies formed. The students hypothesized that the rare hamburger core would generate the most bacteria colonies. Eight hundred colonies grew in the dish containing the rare hamburger core, 400 colonies grew in the dish containing the medium hamburger core, and 0 colonies grew in the dish containing the well-done hamburger core. What is the most appropriate next step for the students to take in this study?




A. Accept the results; one trial is all that is necessary to test a hypothesis.
B. Accept the results; the results of this experiment support their hypothesis.
C. Perform more trials using a different type of meat, under the same conditions as the first experiment.
D. Perform more trials using the same type of meat, under the same conditions as the first experiment.


Answer: D

If an aquatic tank seemingly containing only water was monitored under both lit and unlit conditions, what might a changing pH level indicate about this experiment?

Naim 13:00

If an aquatic tank seemingly containing only water was monitored under both lit and unlit conditions, what might a changing pH level indicate about this experiment?



a. Does aquarium glass affect light reaching water samples

b. Is the availability of carbon dioxide a limiting factor in aquatic ecosystems

c. Does light change the chemical composition of CO2

d. Does the aquarium water contain living microorganisms


Answer: D

A student is attempting to study whether or not an organism is capable of performing both photosynthesis and respiration in an aquatic environment. Which of the following would be the preferred experimental setup?

Naim 13:00

A student is attempting to study whether or not an organism is capable of performing both photosynthesis and respiration in an aquatic environment. Which of the following would be the preferred experimental setup?



a. a plant placed in a lighted aquatic tank and dark aquatic tank. pH levels monitored as an indication of CO2 levels

b. a plant placed in a lighted aquatic tank and a fish placed in a lighted aquatic tank. pH levels monitored as indication of CO2 levels

c. a fish placed in a lighted aquatic tank and a dark aquatic tank. pH levels monitored as an indication of CO2 levels

d. a fish placed in a lighted aquatic tank and a plant placed in a dark aquatic tank. pH levels monitored as an indication of CO2 levels


Answer: A

Aisha wants to conduct an experiment to determine whether sun and shade varieties of the same plant species prefer the same wavelengths of light. She plans to measure rates of photosynthesis. Which design would be best for her experiment?

Naim 12:58

Aisha wants to conduct an experiment to determine whether sun and shade varieties of the same plant species prefer the same wavelengths of light. She plans to measure rates of photosynthesis. Which design would be best for her experiment?



A.1 plant of the sun variety tested under blue light only, and 1 plant of the shade variety tested under blue light only.
B.4 plants of the sun variety: 1 tested under blue light, 1 under green, 1 under red, and 1 under yellow light, and 4 plants of the shade variety:1 tested under blue light, 1 under green, 1 under red, and 1 under yellow light
C.10 plants of the sun variety tested under blue light only; and 10 plants of the shade variety tested under blue light only
D.40 plants of the sun variety: 10 tested under blue light, 10 under green, 10 under red, and 10 under yellow light, and 40 plants of the shade variety: 10 tested under blue light, 10 under green, 10 under red, and 10 under yellow light.


Answer: D

Yellow-billed cuckoos typically hatch in mid-July. Emerging cicadas are a primary food source for nesting cuckoos. Wildfires typically destroy ground coverage which raises the ground temperature and encourages Cicada nymphs to hatch earlier. Which of the following best predicts the effect of wildfires on yellow-billed cuckoo populations?

Naim 12:58

Yellow-billed cuckoos typically hatch in mid-July. Emerging cicadas are a primary food source for nesting cuckoos. Wildfires typically destroy ground coverage which raises the ground temperature and encourages Cicada nymphs to hatch earlier. Which of the following best predicts the effect of wildfires on yellow-billed cuckoo populations?



a. the yellow-billed cuckoo population will decline because the decreased ground cover will allow lizards to prey on cuckoo nests.

b. the yellow-billed cuckoo population will decline because cicadas will emerge before the hatching season begins

c. the yellow-billed cuckoo population will grow because the adults will more easily see and eat the cicada nymphs

d. the yellow billed cuckoo population will remain unchanged because cuckoos do not nest in areas affected by wildfires


Answer: C

Assuming a wildfire would reduce the ground cover in a an ecosystem, how is that likely to affect ground temperature?

Naim 12:57

Assuming a wildfire would reduce the ground cover in a an ecosystem, how is that likely to affect ground temperature?



a. Ground temperature would be colder all year long

b. Ground temperature would be warmer all year long

c. Ground temperature would be colder in the winter, but warmer in the spring through summer as insects begin to emerge

d. there is no relationship between ground cover and ground temperature



Answer: c

Overexploitation encourages extinction and is most likely to

Naim 12:57

Overexploitation encourages extinction and is most likely to



a. animals that occupy a broad ecological niche

b. large animals with low intrinsic reproductive rates

c. most organisms that live in the oceans

d. terrestrial organisms more than aquatic organisms

e. edge adapted species



Answer: b

Introduced species can have deleterious effects on biological communities by

Naim 12:56

Introduced species can have deleterious effects on biological communities by 



A) preying on native species.
B) competing with native species for food or light.
C) displacing native species.
D) competing with native species for space or breeding/nesting habitat.
E) All of the options are correct.



Answer: E

How is habitat fragmentation related to biodiversity loss?

Naim 12:56

How is habitat fragmentation related to biodiversity loss? 




A) Less carbon dioxide is absorbed by plants in fragmented habitats.
B) In fragmented habitats, more soil erosion takes place.
C) Populations of organisms in fragments are smaller and, thus, more susceptible to extinction.
D) Animals are forced out of smaller habitat fragments.
E) Fragments generate silt that negatively affects sensitive river and stream organisms.



Answer: C

Which of the following is the most direct threat to biodiversity ?

Naim 12:55

Which of the following is the most direct threat to biodiversity ?


a. increased levels of atmospheric carbon dioxide

b. the depletion of the ozone layer

c. overexploitation of species

d. habitat destruction

e. zoned reserves


Answer: d

The use of DDT as an insecticide in the United States has been outlawed since 1971, yet is still a problem for certain top-level carnivores in the United States. Which of the following choices best explains this apparent incongruity?

Naim 12:54

The use of DDT as an insecticide in the United States has been outlawed since 1971, yet is still a problem for certain top-level carnivores in the United States. Which of the following choices best explains this apparent incongruity? 




A) DDT is still used for mosquito control in tropical countries, and certain migratory predators can be affected by a seasonal biomagnification.
B) DDT is persistent in the environment and all of the pre-1971 DDT is still available in toxic form to poison top-level carnivores.
C) Pre-1971 DDT has been deposited in certain habitats, particularly wetlands and estuaries, so predators in these ecosystems are vulnerable to biomagnifications of DDT.
D) Whereas most DDT-susceptible species have become resistant to persistent DDT, others are still vulnerable.
E) All of the options are correct.



Answer: A

Although extinction is a natural process, current extinctions are of concern to environmentalists because

Naim 12:53

Although extinction is a natural process, current extinctions are of concern to environmentalists because 




A) more animals than ever before are going extinct.
B) most current extinctions are caused by introduced species.
C) the rate of extinction is unusually high.
D) current extinction is primarily affecting plant diversity.
E) None of the options are correct.


Answer: C

Extinction is a natural phenomenon. It is estimated that 99% of all species that ever lived are now extinct. Why then do we say that we are now experiencing an extinction (loss of biodiversity) crisis?

Naim 12:47

Extinction is a natural phenomenon. It is estimated that 99% of all species that ever lived are now extinct. Why then do we say that we are now experiencing an extinction (loss of biodiversity) crisis? 




A) Humans are ethically responsible for protecting endangered species.
B) Scientists have finally identified most of the species on Earth and are thus able to quantify the number of species becoming extinct.
C) The current rate of extinction is high and human activities threaten biodiversity at all levels.
D) Humans have greater medical needs than at any other time in history, and many potential medicinal compounds are being lost as plant species become extinct.
E) Most biodiversity hot spots have been destroyed by recent ecological disasters.




Answer: C

Estimates of current rates of extinction

Naim 12:46

Estimates of current rates of extinction 




A) indicate that we have reached a state of stable equilibrium in which speciation rates equal extinction rates.
B) suggest that one-half of all animal and plant species may be gone by the year 2100.
C) indicate that rates may be greater than the mass extinctions at the close of the Cretaceous period.
D) indicate that only 1% of all of the species that have ever lived on Earth are still alive.
E) suggest that rates of extinction have decreased globally



Answer: C

Which statement best describes what ultimately happens to the chemical energy that is not converted to new biomass in the process of energy transfer between trophic levels in an ecosystem?

Naim 12:44

Which statement best describes what ultimately happens to the chemical energy that is not converted to new biomass in the process of energy transfer between trophic levels in an ecosystem? 



A) It is undigested and winds up in the feces and is not passed on to higher trophic levels.
B) It is used by organisms to maintain their life processes through the reactions of cellular respiration.
C) Heat produced by cellular respiration is used by heterotrophs to thermoregulate.
D) It is eliminated as feces or is dissipated into space as heat in accordance with the second law of thermodynamics.
E) It is recycled by decomposers to a form that is once again usable by primary producers.



Answer: D

Which of the following ecosystems would likely have a larger net primary productivity/hectare and why?

Naim 12:43

Which of the following ecosystems would likely have a larger net primary productivity/hectare and why? 



A) open ocean because of the total biomass of photosynthetic autotrophs
B) grassland because of the small standing crop biomass that results from consumption by herbivores and rapid decomposition
C) tropical rain forest because of the massive standing crop biomass and species diversity
D) cave due to the lack of photosynthetic autotrophs
E) tundra because of the incredibly rapid period of growth during the summer season



Answer: B

Why is net primary production (NPP) a more useful measurement to an ecosystem ecologist than gross primary production (GPP)?

Naim 12:42

Why is net primary production (NPP) a more useful measurement to an ecosystem ecologist than gross primary production (GPP)? 




A) NPP can be expressed in energy/unit of area/unit of time.
B) NPP can be expressed in terms of carbon fixed by photosynthesis for an entire ecosystem.
C) NPP represents the stored chemical energy that is available to consumers in the ecosystem.
D) NPP is the same as the standing crop.
E) NPP shows the rate at which the standing crop is utilized by consumers.


Answer: C

How is it that the open ocean produces the highest net primary productivity of Earth's ecosystems, yet net primary productivity per square meter is relatively low?

Naim 12:42

How is it that the open ocean produces the highest net primary productivity of Earth's ecosystems, yet net primary productivity per square meter is relatively low? 




A) Oceans contain greater concentrations of nutrients compared to other ecosystems.
B) Oceans receive a lesser amount of solar energy per unit area.
C) Oceans have the largest area of all the ecosystems on Earth.
D) Ocean ecosystems have less species diversity.
E) Oceanic producers are generally much smaller than oceanic consumers.



Answer: C

Which of the following is a true statement regarding mineral nutrients in soils and their implication for primary productivity?

Naim 12:41

Which of the following is a true statement regarding mineral nutrients in soils and their implication for primary productivity? 




A) Globally, phosphorous availability is most limiting to primary productivity.
B) Adding a nonlimiting nutrient will stimulate primary productivity.
C) Adding more of a limiting nutrient will increase primary productivity, indefinitely.
D) Phosphorous is sometimes unavailable to producers due to leaching.
E) Alkaline soils are more productive than acidic soils.



Answer: D

Approximately 1% of the solar radiation that strikes a plant is converted into the chemical bond energy of sugars. Why is this amount so low?

Naim 12:40

Approximately 1% of the solar radiation that strikes a plant is converted into the chemical bond energy of sugars. Why is this amount so low? 



A) Approximately 99% of the solar radiation is converted to heat energy.
B) Only 1% of the wavelengths of visible light are absorbed by photosynthetic pigments.
C) Most solar energy strikes water and land surfaces.
D) Approximately 99% of the solar radiation is reflected.
E) Only the green wavelengths are absorbed by plants for photosynthesis.



Answer: B

Which of the following is true of detrivores?

Naim 12:39

Which of the following is true of detrivores? 




A) They recycle chemical elements directly back to primary consumers.
B) They synthesize organic molecules that are used by primary producers.
C) They convert organic materials from all trophic levels to inorganic compounds usable by primary producers.
D) They secrete enzymes that convert the organic molecules of detritus into CO₂ and H₂O.
E) Some species are autotrophic, while others are heterotrophic.


Answer: C

If the sun were to suddenly stop providing energy to Earth, most ecosystems would vanish. Which of the following ecosystems would likely survive the longest after this hypothetical disaster?

Naim 12:38

If the sun were to suddenly stop providing energy to Earth, most ecosystems would vanish. Which of the following ecosystems would likely survive the longest after this hypothetical disaster? 




A) tropical rain forest
B) tundra
C) benthic ocean
D) grassland
E) desert



Answer: C

To recycle nutrients, an ecosystem must have, at a minimum,

Naim 12:38

To recycle nutrients, an ecosystem must have, at a minimum, 




A) producers.
B) producers and decomposers.
C) producers, primary consumers, and decomposers.
D) producers, primary consumers, secondary consumers, and decomposers.
E) producers, primary consumers, secondary consumers, top carnivores, and decomposers.



Answer: B

Which of the following best describes a consequence of having no bacteria and fungi in a food web?

Naim 12:38

Which of the following best describes a consequence of having no bacteria and fungi in a food web?




a. Grasses will have no direct access to chemical components recycled from dead organisms

b. rabbits will have no direct access to energy absorbed from secondary consumers

c. shrews will have no direct access to matter transferred from tertiary consumers

d. hawks will have no direct access to nitrogen acquired from the atmosphere



Answer: c

The biggest difference between the flow of energy and the flow of chemical nutrients in an ecosystem is that __________.

Naim 12:37

The biggest difference between the flow of energy and the flow of chemical nutrients in an ecosystem is that __________.



  • the amount of energy is much greater than the amount of nutrients
  • energy is recycled, but nutrients are not
  • organisms always need nutrients, but they don't always need energy
  • nutrients are recycled, but energy is not
  • organisms always need energy, but they don't always need nutrients




Answer: nutrients are recycled but energy is not

What would be a likely entry for A?

Naim 12:36
Use the incomplete diagram below, illustrating some of the steps involved in eutrophication to answer the following question.

A---> algae grow faster --> algae die -->Dead algae and plants accumulate-->(B)-->Dissolved oxygen levels fall-->aquatic animals suffocate and die.

What would be a likely entry for A?



A. increased temperature

b. elimination of sunlight

c. increased sunlight

d. fertilizers washed into the lake

e. increased UV radiation


Answer: d

What would be a likely entry for box B?

Naim 12:36
Use the incomplete diagram below, illustrating some of the steps involved in eutrophication to answer the following question.

A---> algae grow faster --> algae die -->Dead algae and plants accumulate-->(B)-->Dissolved oxygen levels fall-->aquatic animals suffocate and die.

What would be a likely entry for box B?
Use the incomplete diagram below, illustrating some of the steps involved in eutrophication to answer the following question.

What would be a likely entry for box B?



a. carbon dioxide building up from cellular respiration by decomposers
b. fish that cannot acclimate to low oxygen levels
c. warm water holding less oxygen than cold water
d. plants no longer producing oxygen
e. decomposer population carries on cellular respiration and uses up oxygen



Answer: d

Aquatic nitrate pollution can result in _____.

Naim 12:35

Aquatic nitrate pollution can result in _____.




a. algal bloom
b. oxygen depletion
c. fish kills
d. hypoxia
e. an algal bloom that, when the algae die and are decomposed by bacteria, leads to hypoxia and the death of fish



Answer: e

In terms of nutrient cycling, why does timber harvesting in a temperate forest cause less ecological devastation than timber harvesting in tropical rainforests?

Naim 12:35

In terms of nutrient cycling, why does timber harvesting in a temperate forest cause less ecological devastation than timber harvesting in tropical rainforests? 




A) Trees are generally less numerous in temperate forests, so fewer nutrients will be removed from the temperate forest ecosystem during a harvest.
B) Temperate forest tree species require fewer nutrients to survive than their tropical counterpart species, so a harvest removes fewer nutrients from the temperate ecosystem.
C) The warmer temperatures in the tropics influence rain forest species to assimilate nutrients more slowly, so tropical nutrient absorption is much slower than in temperate forests.
D) There are far fewer decomposers in tropical rain forests, so turning organic matter into usable nutrients is a slower process than in temperate forest ecosystems.
E) Typical harvests remove up to 75% of the nutrients in the woody trunks of tropical rain forest trees, leaving nutrient-impoverished soils behind.



Answer: E

Denitrifying bacteria convert _____ to _____.

Naim 12:34

Denitrifying bacteria convert _____ to _____.



nitrates ... nitrogen gas
nitrogen gas ... nitrates
nitrogen gas ... ammonium
ammonium ... nitrogen gas
nitrogen gas ... nitrites



Answer: nitrates to nitrogen gas

Nitrogen is available to plants only in the form of

Naim 12:33

Nitrogen is available to plants only in the form of





A) N2 in the atmosphere.
B) nitrite ions in the soil.
C) uric acid from animal excretions.
D) amino acids from decomposing plant and animal proteins.
E) nitrate ions in the soil.



Answer: E

Agricultural lands frequently require nutrient augmentation because

Naim 12:33

Agricultural lands frequently require nutrient augmentation because





A) nitrogen-fixing bacteria are not as plentiful in agricultural soils because of the use of pesticides.
B) the nutrients that become the biomass of plants are not cycled back to the soil on lands where they are harvested.
C) land that is available for agriculture tends to be nutrient-poor.
D) grains raised for feeding livestock must be fortified and thus require additional nutrients.
E) cultivation of agricultural land inhibits the decomposition of organic matter.


Answer: B

Why were ecologists concerned about the shift in the peak caterpillar season from June 3, 1980 to May 15, 2000?

Naim 12:33
Flycatcher birds that migrate from Africa to Europe feed their nestlings a diet that is almost exclusively moth caterpillars. The graph in Figure 43.3 shows the mean (peak) dates of bird arrival, bird hatching, and caterpillar season for the years 1980 and 2000.

Why were ecologists concerned about the shift in the peak caterpillar season from June 3, 1980 to May 15, 2000?


A) The caterpillars would have eaten much of the foliage of the trees where flycatchers would have nested, rendering their nests more open to predation.
B) The earlier hatching of caterpillars would compete with other insect larval forms that the flycatchers would also use to feed their young.
C) The flycatcher nestlings in 2000 would miss the peak caterpillar season and might not be as well fed, leading to population reductions.
D) The flycatchers would have to migrate sooner to match their brood-rearing to the time of peak caterpillar season.


Answer: C

The shift in the peak of caterpillar season is most likely due to

Naim 12:33
Flycatcher birds that migrate from Africa to Europe feed their nestlings a diet that is almost exclusively moth caterpillars. The graph in Figure 43.3 shows the mean (peak) dates of bird arrival, bird hatching, and caterpillar season for the years 1980 and 2000.

The shift in the peak of caterpillar season is most likely due to


A) pesticide use.
B) earlier migration returns of flycatchers.
C) an innate change in the biological clock of the caterpillars.
D) global warming.
E) acid precipitation in Europe.


Answer: D

All of the following are true statements about meiosis in mammals EXCEPT:

Naim 12:31

All of the following are true statements about meiosis in mammals EXCEPT: 





a) It produces cells with the haploid number of chromosomes.
b) It follows DNA replication.
c) It occurs only in reproductive structures.
d) It produces four genetically identical gametes.
e) It serves as a factor in bringing about variation among offspring.



Answer: D

Crossing-over is a process that involves

Naim 12:30

Crossing-over is a process that involves





a. exchange of genetic material between chromosomes that are not homologous

b. random segregation of genes on different chromosomes

c. continued maintenance of genetic stability

d. exchange of genetic material between chromosomes that are homologous

e. random segregation of genes on homologous chromosomes



Answer: D

Which of the following causes the rapid change of membrane polarity during an action potential?

Naim 12:29

Which of the following causes the rapid change of membrane polarity during an action potential?




(A) Diffusion of neurotransmitters such as acetylcholine
(B) Diffusion of positively charged ions across the cell membrane
(C) Release of electrons from inside the cell
(D) Release of protons from inside the cell (E) Active transport of cations by the sodium-potassium pump



Answer: B

Which of the following best describes allosteric inhibition of an enzyme?

Naim 12:28

Which of the following best describes allosteric inhibition of an enzyme?




(A) The inhibitor binds to the mRNA to prevent translation of the enzyme.
(B) The inhibitor binds to the enzyme substrate.
(C) The inhibitor binds to the enzyme but not at its active site.
(D) The inhibitor binds to the enzyme at its active site.
(E) The inhibitor binds to the gene that encodes for the enzyme.



Answer: C

Which of the following occurs in both fermentation and aerobic cellular respiration

Naim 12:28

Which of the following occurs in both fermentation and aerobic cellular respiration




a. osygen and carbon dioxide are consumed

b. FAD is reduced, driving ATP synthesis

c. Proton gradients are produced across membranes

d. ATP is synthesized from ADP and inorganic phosphate

e. most of the energy from glucose is released as carbon dioxide



Answer: D

Describe the difference between the two processes in cellular respiration that produce ATP: oxidative phosphorylation and substrate-level phosphorylation

Naim 12:28

Describe the difference between the two processes in cellular respiration that produce ATP: oxidative phosphorylation and substrate-level phosphorylation



Most of the ATP produced in cellular respiration come from oxidative phosphorylation, in which the energy released from redox reactions in an electron transport chain is used to produce ATP.

In substrate level phosphorylation, an enzyme dirctly transfers a phosphate group to ADP fro an intermediate substrate. All ATP production in glycolysis occurs by substrate-level phosphorylation, this form of ATP production also occurs at one step in the citric acid cycle.

Plasmid exchanged by conjugating bacteria [Match]

Naim 12:27

Plasmid exchanged by conjugating bacteria [Match]




-----------------------------------------------
[A] Unpaired unreplicated linear chromosomes

[B] Unpaired replicated linear chromosomes

[C] Paired replicated linear chromosomes

[D] Circular chromosomes

[E] Extra-chromosomal circular DNA



Answer: E

Eukaryotic cells at metaphase I [Match]

Naim 12:27

Eukaryotic cells at metaphase I [Match]



-----------------------------------------------
[A] Unpaired unreplicated linear chromosomes

[B] Unpaired replicated linear chromosomes

[C] Paired replicated linear chromosomes

[D] Circular chromosomes

[E] Extra-chromosomal circular DNA



Answer: C

Eukaryotic cells at prophase of mitosis [Match]

Naim 12:27

Eukaryotic cells at prophase of mitosis [Match]



-----------------------------------------------
[A] Unpaired unreplicated linear chromosomes

[B] Unpaired replicated linear chromosomes

[C] Paired replicated linear chromosomes

[D] Circular chromosomes

[E] Extra-chromosomal circular DNA



Answer: B

Typical of prokaryotic cells after fission [Match]

Naim 12:26

Typical of prokaryotic cells after fission [Match]




-----------------------------------------------
[A] Unpaired unreplicated linear chromosomes

[B] Unpaired replicated linear chromosomes

[C] Paired replicated linear chromosomes

[D] Circular chromosomes

[E] Extra-chromosomal circular DNA


Answer: D

Which of the following is TRUE of C (subscript 4), plants such as corn?

Naim 12:26

Which of the following is TRUE of C (subscript 4), plants such as corn?



-----------------------------------------------
[A] The Calvin cycle is confined to the bundle sheath cells.

[B] The plants are classified as cacti.

[C] The stomates open at night rather than during the day.

[D] They will not grow in climates where the temperature exceeds 70°F.

[E] They have an anatomy that is found only in gymnosperms.



Answer: A

Which of the following organelles is correctly matched with its function?

Naim 12:25

Which of the following organelles is correctly matched with its function?



-----------------------------------------------
[A] Lysosome . . lipid hydrolysis

[B] Nucleolus . . protein synthesis

[C] Ribosome . . carbohydrate synthesis

[D] Mitochondrion . . Calvin cycle

[E] Endoplasmic reticulum . . transcription



Answer: A

Which of the following statements accurately describes the difference between aerobic and anaerobic respiration?

Naim 12:24

Which of the following statements accurately describes the difference between aerobic and anaerobic respiration?




a. Aerobic respiration uses O2 as the final electron acceptor, whereas anaerobic respiration uses H2O.
b. Anaerobic respiration uses oxygen as the final electron acceptor, and aerobic respiration uses either an inorganic molecule, such as nitrate ions or sulfate ions, or an organic molecule, such as an acid or alcohol.
c. Aerobic respiration uses oxygen as the final electron acceptor, and anaerobic respiration uses either an inorganic molecule, such as nitrate ions or sulfate ions, or an organic molecule, such as an acid or alcohol.
d. Aerobic respiration uses an organic molecule as the final electron acceptor, and anaerobic respiration uses an inorganic molecule as the final electron acceptor.



Answer: B

Which of the following is an important difference between light-dependent and light-independent reactions of photosynthesis?

Naim 12:22

Which of the following is an important difference between light-dependent and light-independent reactions of photosynthesis?




A.The light-dependent reactions occur only during the day; the light-independent reactions occur only during the night.

BThe light-dependent reactions occur in the cytoplasm; the light-independent reactions occur in chloroplasts.

C.The light-dependent reactions utilize CO2 and H2O; the light-independent reactions produce CO2 and H2O.

D.The light-dependent reactions produce ATP and NADPH2; the light-independent reactions use energy stored in ATP and NADPH.



Answer: D

If plants are grown for several days in an atmosphere containing 14CO2 in place of 12CO2 one would expect to find

Naim 12:22

If plants are grown for several days in an atmosphere containing 14CO2 in place of 12CO2 one would expect to find




a. very little radioactivity in the growing leaves

b. large amounts of radioactive water released from the stomates

c. a large increase in the 14C in the starch stored in the roots

d. a large decrease in the rate of carbon fixation in the guard cells



Answer: a large increase in 14C in the starch stored in the roots.

The tertiary structure and function of a polypeptide is principally determined by the

Naim 12:20

The tertiary structure and function of a polypeptide is principally determined by the




(A) length of the polypeptide
(B) number of nucleotides present in the polypeptide
(C) repeated units of glycerol making up the polypeptide
(D) interactions between amino acids present in the polypeptide
(E) number of introns within the polypeptide



Answer: D

Which of the following is true of both mitochondria and chloroplasts?

Naim 12:19

Which of the following is true of both mitochondria and chloroplasts?




(A) They are found in the cells of eukaryotic autotrophs and heterotrophs.
(B) They include stacks of membranes that absorb light.
(C) They include compartments where hydrogen ions are concentrated.
(D) They produce sugars using energy harvested in the cytoplasm.
(E) They break down sugar to produce A TP .



Answer: C

Within the cell, many chemical reactions that, by themselves, require energy input (have a positive free-energy change) can occur because the reactions

Naim 12:19

Within the cell, many chemical reactions that, by themselves, require energy input (have a positive free-energy change) can occur because the reactions




a) may be coupled to the hydrolysis of ATP
b) take place very slowly
c) take place when the cells are at unusually high temperatures
d) are catalyzed by enzymes
e) are aided by various metal ions that act as catalysts


Answer: A

The working of lac operon is important for which of the following reasons?

Naim 12:19

The working of lac operon is important for which of the following reasons?




a) It represents a principle means by which genes are regulated in prokaryotes
b) it represents a principle means by which genes are regulated in eukaryotes
c) It illustrates the complexities of rRNA transcription
d) It provided the first clues to how DNA replication is controlled during the cell cycle



Answer: A

Which of the following is a correct statement about mutations?

Naim 12:18

Which of the following is a correct statement about mutations?




a) they are a source of variation for evolution
b) they drive evolution by creating mutation pressures
c) they are irreversible
d) they occur in germ cells but not in somatic cells



Answer: A

Analysis of DNA sequences from two individuals of the same species results in a greater estimate of genetic variability than does analysis of amino acid sequences from the same individuals because:

Naim 12:18

Analysis of DNA sequences from two individuals of the same species results in a greater estimate of genetic variability than does analysis of amino acid sequences from the same individuals because:




a) different DNA sequences can code for the same amino acid
b) some amino acid variations cannot be detected by protein electrophoresis
c) DNA sequencing is a more reliable technique than protein electrophoresis
d) proteins are more easily damaged than is DNA



Answer: A

The base composition of DNA varies from one species of bacteria to another. Which of the following ratios would you expect to remain constant in the DNA. regardless of the species?

Naim 12:18

The base composition of DNA varies from one species of bacteria to another. Which of the following ratios would you expect to remain constant in the DNA. regardless of the species?




a) pyrimidine + purine/ deoxyribose
b) adenine/ cytosine
c) adenine + cytosine/ deoxyribose
d) Pyrimidine/ ribose



Answer: A

If the pH of a solution is decreased from 7 to 6, it means that the

Naim 12:17

If the pH of a solution is decreased from 7 to 6, it means that the



A. concentration of H+ has decreased to 10 times of what it was at pH 7.
B. concentration of H+ has increased to 10 times of what it was a pH 7.
C. concentration of OH- has increased to 10 times what it was at pH 7.
D. concentration of OH- has decreased to 10 times what it was at pH 7.
E. Both B and D are correct.



Answer: E

A covalent bond is likely to be polar when

Naim 12:17

A covalent bond is likely to be polar when




A. one of the atoms sharing electrons is much more electronegative than the other atom.
B. the two atoms sharing electrons are equally electronegative.
C. the two atoms sharing electrons are of the same element.
D. it is between two atoms that are both very strong electron acceptors.
E. the two atoms sharing electrons are different elements.



Answer: A

A controlled experiment is one in which

Naim 12:16

A controlled experiment is one in which




A. the experiment is repeated many times to ensure that the results are accurate.
B. the experiment proceeds at a slow pace to guarantee that the scientist can carefully observe all reactions and process all experimental data.
C. there are at least two groups, one of which does not receive the experimental treatment.
D. there are at least two groups, one differing from the other by two or more variables.
E. there is one group for which the scientist controls all variables.



Answer: C

Which of following is a correct statement about the relationship between ph and the hydrogen-ion concentration of a solution?

Naim 12:16

Which of following is a correct statement about the relationship between ph and the hydrogen-ion concentration of a solution?




a. There are no hydrogen ions present in a solution with a basic pH

b. There are no hydrogen ions present in a solution with a pH of 7

c. The concentration of hydrogen ions in a solution with a pH of 7 is 100 times greater than that in a solution with a pH of 9

d. The concentration of hydrogen ions in a solution with a pH of 5 is twice that than with a pH of 3



Answer: c

Which of the following is true of synaptic signaling and hormonal signaling?

Naim 12:14

Which of the following is true of synaptic signaling and hormonal signaling?



A) Hormonal signaling occurs in animals only.

B) Hormonal signaling is important between cells that are at greater distances apart than in synaptic signaling.

C) Both act on target cells by a G-protein-signaling pathway.

D) Only A and B are true.

E) A , B, and C are true.


Answer: B

Which of the following provides the best evidence that cell-signaling pathways evolved early in the history of life?

Naim 12:14

Which of the following provides the best evidence that cell-signaling pathways evolved early in the history of life?




A) They are seen in "primitive" cells such as yeast.
B) Yeast cells signal each other for mating.
C) Signal transduction molecules found in distantly related organisms are similar.
D) Signals can be sent long distances by cells.
E) Most signals are received by cell surface receptors.


Answer: C

Of the following, a receptor protein in a membrane that recognizes a chemical signal is most similar to

Naim 12:13

Of the following, a receptor protein in a membrane that recognizes a chemical signal is most similar to




A) the active site of an enzyme in the cytoplasm that binds to a specific substrate.
B) RNA specifying the amino acids in a polypeptide.
C) a particular metabolic pathway operating within a specific organelle.
D) an enzyme with an optimum pH and temperature for activity.
E) genes making up a chromosome.



Answer: A

The signal transduction pathway in animal cells that use epinephrine

Naim 12:10

The signal transduction pathway in animal cells that use epinephrine




A) activates the breakdown of glycogen in liver and skeletal muscle cells.
B) is a classic example of synaptic signaling.
C) operates independently of hormone receptors on target cells.
D) A and B only
E) A, B, and C



Answer: A

The process of transduction usually begins

Naim 12:10

The process of transduction usually begins


a.when the chemical signal is released from the alpha cell.

b.when the signal molecule changes the receptor protein in some way.

c.after the target cell divides.

d.after the third stage of cell signaling is completed.

e.when the hormone is released from the gland into the blood.


Answer: B

Most nerve cells communicate with others by means of:

Naim 12:10

Most nerve cells communicate with others by means of:





A. electrical signals that pass across synapses.

B. chemical signals that pass across synapses.

C. bursts of pressure that bump the postsynaptic cell membrane.

D. sodium ions as they are released from one cell and enter the next.



Answer: B

Is an allergy (to pollen, bees, peanuts, etc) a normal body function or a disruption of body function?

Naim 12:09

Is an allergy (to pollen, bees, peanuts, etc) a normal body function or a disruption of body function?




A. An allergy is a normal body function that returns the immune system to homeostasis.

B. An allergy is a disruption of normal body function when the immune system overreacts to a particular antigen.

C. An allergy is a disruption of normal body function when the immune system is inactivated and cannot fight a particular antigen.

D. An allergy is a disruption of normal body function when the immune system identifies a foreign antigen as one of the body’s own self proteins.



Answer: B

The mechanism of action of many common medications involves interfering with the normal pathways that cells use to respond to hormone signals. Which of the following best describes a drug interaction that directly interferes with a signal transduction pathway?

Naim 12:09

The mechanism of action of many common medications involves interfering with the normal pathways that cells use to respond to hormone signals. Which of the following best describes a drug interaction that directly interferes with a signal transduction pathway?


A. A medication interrupts the transcription of ribosomal RNA genes.

B. A medication enters the target cell and inhibits an enzyme that normally synthesizes a second messenger.

C. A medication causes the cell to absorb more of a particular mineral, eventually poisoning the cell.

D. A medication enters the target cell's cytoplasm and acts as a mutagen.



Answer: B

Which of the following describes cell communication systems?

Naim 12:09

Which of the following describes cell communication systems? 




A) Cell signaling evolved more recently than systems such as the immune system of vertebrates.
B) Communicating cells are usually close together.
C) Most signal receptors are bound to the outer membrane of the nuclear envelope.
D) Lipid phosphorylation is a major mechanism of signal transduction.
E) In response to a signal, the cell may alter activities by changes in cytosol activity or in transcription of RNA.



Answer: E

Which of the following is an additional use of the gel electrophoresis technique?

Naim 12:08
Refer to an experiment that was performed to separate DNA fragments from four samples radioactively labeled with 32 P. The fragments were separated by gel electrophoresis.

Which of the following is an additional use of the gel electrophoresis technique?


(A) To express a gene
(B) To separate proteins in a mixture
(C) To ligate DNA fragments
(D) To transform E. coli
(E) To amplify genes


Answer: B

The DNA was labeled with 32 P in order to

Naim 12:08
Refer to an experiment that was performed to separate DNA fragments from four samples radioactively labeled with 32 P. The fragments were separated by gel electrophoresis.

The DNA was labeled with 32 P in order to


(A) stimulate DNA replication
(B) inhibit the uptake of unlabeled A TP
(C) show which fragments included the 5' end and which fragments included the 3' end
(D) visualize the fragments
(E) speed up the rate of separation by electrophoresis


Answer: D

The electrophoretic separation of the pieces of DNA in each of the four samples was achieved because of differential migration of the DNA fragments in an electric field. This differential migration was caused by the

Naim 12:07
Refer to an experiment that was performed to separate DNA fragments from four samples radioactively labeled with 32 P. The fragments were separated by gel electrophoresis.


The electrophoretic separation of the pieces of DNA in each of the four samples was achieved because of differential migration of the DNA fragments in an electric field. This differential migration was caused by the



(A) relative amounts of radioactivity in the DNA
(B) number of cleavage points per fragment
(C) size of each fragment
(D) overall positive charge of each fragment
(E) solubility of each fragment


Answer: C

If, instead of the bag, a potato slice were placed in the beaker of distilled water, which of the following would be true of the potato slice?

Naim 12:07
Refer to an experiment in which a dialysis-tubing bag is filled with a mixture of 3% starch and 3% glucose and placed in a beaker of distilled water, as shown below. After 3 hours, glucose can be detected in the water outside the dialysis-tubing bag, but starch cannot.

If, instead of the bag, a potato slice were placed in the beaker of distilled water, which of the following would be true of the potato slice?



(A) It would gain mass.
(B) It would neither gain nor lose mass.
(C) It would absorb solutes from the surrounding liquid.
(D) It would lose water until water potential inside the cells is equal to zero.
(E) The cells of the potato would increase their metabolic activity.


Answer: A

Which of the following best describes the condition expected after 24 hours?

Naim 12:07
Refer to an experiment in which a dialysis-tubing bag is filled with a mixture of 3% starch and 3% glucose and placed in a beaker of distilled water, as shown below. After 3 hours, glucose can be detected in the water outside the dialysis-tubing bag, but starch cannot.

Which of the following best describes the condition expected after 24 hours?




(A) The bag will contain more water than it did in the original condition.
(B) The contents of the bag will have the same osmotic concentration as the surrounding solution.
(C) Water potential in the bag will be greater than water potential in the surrounding solution.
(D) Starch molecules will continue to pass through the bag.
(E) A glucose test on the solution in the bag will be negative.



Answer: A

From the initial conditions and results described, which of the following is a logical conclusion?

Naim 12:06
Refer to an experiment in which a dialysis-tubing bag is filled with a mixture of 3% starch and 3% glucose and placed in a beaker of distilled water, as shown below. After 3 hours, glucose can be detected in the water outside the dialysis-tubing bag, but starch cannot.

From the initial conditions and results described, which of the following is a logical conclusion?




(A) The initial concentration of glucose in the bag is higher than the initial concentration of starch in the bag.
(B) The pores of the bag are larger than the glucose molecules but smaller than the starch molecules.
(C) The bag is not selectively permeable.
(D) A net movement of water into the beaker has occurred.
(E) The molarity of the solution in the bag and the molarity of the solution in the surrounding beaker are the same.


Answer: B

Refer to the birth of a child with blood type A to a mother with blood type B

Naim 12:06
Refer to the birth of a child with blood type A to a mother with blood type B


The father must have which of the following blood types?

(A) AB only
(B) Either AB orB
(C) Either AB or 0
(D) Either AB or A
(E) AB or A or O

Answer: D

If the father has blood type AB, which of the following statements is correct about the mother?


(A) She contributes an 18 allele, which is recessive to the father's I A allele.
(B) She contributes an i allele, which is recessive to the father's I A allele.
(C) She contributes an 18 allele, which is codominant to the father's I A allele.
(D) She contributes an i allele, which is codominant to the father's 18 allele.
(E) She is homozygous for the 18 allele.


Answer: B

There is good evidence for linkage when

Naim 12:05

There is good evidence for linkage when 




A) two genes occur together in the same gamete.
B) a gene is associated with a specific phenotype.
C) two genes work together to control a specific characteristic.
D) genes do not segregate independently during meiosis.
E) two characteristics are caused by a single gene.



Answer: D

The reason that linked genes are inherited together is that

Naim 12:05

The reason that linked genes are inherited together is that 




A) they are located on the same chromosome.
B) the number of genes in a cell is greater than the number of chromosomes.
C) chromosomes are unbreakable.
D) alleles are paired.
E) genes align that way during metaphase I.



Answer: A

Chromosomes and genes share all of the following characteristics except that

Naim 12:04

Chromosomes and genes share all of the following characteristics except that 




A) they are both present in pairs in all diploid cells.
B) they both undergo segregation during meiosis.
C) their copy numbers in the cell decrease after meiosis, and increase during fertilization.
D) they are both copied during the S phase of the cell cycle.
E) they both pair up with their homologues during prophase of mitosis.



Answer: E

In sheep, eye color is controlled by a single gene with two alleles. When a homozygous brown-eyed sheep is crossed with a homozygous green-eyed sheep, blue eyes offspring are produced. If the blue eyed sheep are mated with each other, what percent of their offspring will most likely have brown eyes?

Naim 12:04

In sheep, eye color is controlled by a single gene with two alleles. When a homozygous brown-eyed sheep is crossed with a homozygous green-eyed sheep, blue eyes offspring are produced. If the blue eyed sheep are mated with each other, what percent of their offspring will most likely have brown eyes? 




A. 0%
B. 25%
C. 50%
D. 75%
E. 100%



Answer: B
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