Eyebrow hairs are always shorter than hairs on your head because of ________.

Eyebrow hairs are always shorter than hairs on your head because of ________. 

A) they grow much slower
B) eyebrow follicles are only active for a few months
C) the vascular supply of the eyebrow follicle is one-tenth that of the head hair follicle
D) hormones in the eyebrow follicle switch the growth off after it has reached a predetermined length


Answer: B) eyebrow follicles are only active for a few months

Male pattern baldness has a genetic switch that turns on in response to ________.

Male pattern baldness has a genetic switch that turns on in response to ________.

A) age
B) size
C) weight
D) male hormones


Answer: D) male hormones

What is the first threat to life from a massive third-degree burn?

What is the first threat to life from a massive third-degree burn? 

A) infection
B) catastrophic fluid loss
C) unbearable pain
D) loss of immune function


Answer: B) catastrophic fluid loss

Burns are devastating and debilitating because of loss of fluids and electrolytes from the body. How do physicians estimate the extent of burn damage associated with such dangerous fluid loss?

Burns are devastating and debilitating because of loss of fluids and electrolytes from the body. How do physicians estimate the extent of burn damage associated with such dangerous fluid loss? 

A) by measuring urinary output and fluid intake
B) by observing the tissues that are usually moist
C) through blood analysis
D) by using the "rule of nines"


Answer: D) by using the "rule of nines"

In addition to protection (physical and chemical barrier), the skin serves other functions. Which of the following is another vital function of the skin?

In addition to protection (physical and chemical barrier), the skin serves other functions. Which of the following is another vital function of the skin? 

A) It converts modified epidermal cholesterol to a vitamin D precursor important to calcium metabolism.
B) It aids in the transport of materials throughout the body.
C) The cells of the epidermis store glucose as glycogen for energy.
D) It absorbs vitamin C so that the skin will not be subject to diseases.


Answer: A) It converts modified epidermal cholesterol to a vitamin D precursor important to calcium metabolism.

The sebaceous glands are simple alveolar glands that secrete a substance known as sebum. The secretion of sebum is stimulated ________.

The sebaceous glands are simple alveolar glands that secrete a substance known as sebum. The secretion of sebum is stimulated ________. 

A) by high temperatures
B) when the air temperature drops
C) by hormones, especially androgens
D) as a protective coating when one is swimming


Answer: C) by hormones, especially androgens

Apocrine glands, which begin to function at puberty under hormonal influence, seem to play little role in thermoregulation. Where would we find these glands in the human body?

Apocrine glands, which begin to function at puberty under hormonal influence, seem to play little role in thermoregulation. Where would we find these glands in the human body? 

A) in all body regions and buried deep in the dermis
B) beneath the flexure lines in the body
C) in the axillary and anogenital area
D) in the palms of the hands and soles of the feet


Answer: C) in the axillary and anogenital area

The composition of the secretions of the eccrine glands is ________.

The composition of the secretions of the eccrine glands is ________. 

A) primarily uric acid
B) 99% water, sodium chloride, trace amounts of wastes, and vitamin C
C) fatty substances, proteins, antibodies, and trace amounts of minerals and vitamins
D) metabolic wastes


Answer: B) 99% water, sodium chloride, trace amounts of wastes, and vitamin C

Sudoriferous (sweat) glands are categorized into two distinct types. Which of the following are the two types of sweat glands?

Sudoriferous (sweat) glands are categorized into two distinct types. Which of the following are the two types of sweat glands? 

A) sebaceous and merocrine
B) mammary and ceruminous
C) eccrine and apocrine
D) holocrine and mammary


Answer: C) eccrine and apocrine

Which of the following statements best describes what fingernails actually are?

Which of the following statements best describes what fingernails actually are? 

A) Fingernails are a modification of the epidermis.
B) Fingernails are derived from osseous tissue.
C) Fingernails are extensions of the carpal bones.
D) Fingernails are a separate tissue from the skin, formed from a different embryonic layer.


Answer: A) Fingernails are a modification of the epidermis.

The most important factors influencing hair growth are ________.

The most important factors influencing hair growth are ________. 

A) sex and hormones
B) age and glandular products
C) the size and number of hair follicles
D) nutrition and hormones


Answer: D) nutrition and hormones

A Langerhans' cell is a ________.

A Langerhans' cell is a ________. 

A) specialized squamous epithelial cell
B) specialized phagocytic cell
C) specialized nerve cell
D) specialized melanocyte


Answer: B) specialized phagocytic cell

Changes in the colour of skin are often an indication of a homeostatic imbalance. Which of the following changes would suggest that a patient is suffering from Addison's disease?

Changes in the colour of skin are often an indication of a homeostatic imbalance. Which of the following changes would suggest that a patient is suffering from Addison's disease? 

A) The skin takes on a bronze or metallic appearance.
B) Black-and-blue marks become evident for no apparent cause.
C) The skin appears to have an abnormal, yellowish tint.
D) It is impossible to suggest Addison's disease from an inspection of a person's skin.


Answer: A) The skin takes on a bronze or metallic appearance.

Which of the following statements indicates the way in which the body's natural defences protect the skin from the effects of UV damage?

Which of the following statements indicates the way in which the body's natural defences protect the skin from the effects of UV damage? 

A) The skin is protected by the synthesis of three pigments that contribute to the skin's colour.
B) Carotene, which accumulates in the stratum corneum and hypodermal adipose tissue, is synthesized in large amounts in the presence of sunlight.
C) The skin is protected by increasing the number of Langerhans' cells, which help to activate the immune system.
D) Prolonged exposure to the sun induces melanin dispersion, which in turn acts as a natural sunscreen.


Answer: D) Prolonged exposure to the sun induces melanin dispersion, which in turn acts as a natural sunscreen.

The design of a person's epidermal ridges is determined by the manner in which the papillae rest upon the dermal ridges to produce the specific pattern known as handprints, footprints, and fingerprints. Which of the following statements is true regarding these prints or ridges?

The design of a person's epidermal ridges is determined by the manner in which the papillae rest upon the dermal ridges to produce the specific pattern known as handprints, footprints, and fingerprints. Which of the following statements is true regarding these prints or ridges? 

A) Every human being has the same pattern of ridges.
B) They are genetically determined, therefore unique to each person.
C) Because we are constantly shedding epithelial cells, these ridges are changing daily.
D) Identical twins do not have the same pattern of ridges.


Answer: B) They are genetically determined, therefore unique to each person.

The papillary layer of the dermis is connective tissue heavily invested with blood vessels. The superficial surface has structures called:

The papillary layer of the dermis is connective tissue heavily invested with blood vessels. The superficial surface has structures called: 

A) dermal papillae.
B) hair follicles.
C) ceruminous glands.
D) reticular papillae.


Answer: A) dermal papillae.

Despite its apparent durability, the dermis is subject to tearing. How might a person know that the dermis has been stretched and/or torn?

Despite its apparent durability, the dermis is subject to tearing. How might a person know that the dermis has been stretched and/or torn? 

A) Because the pain is acute due to a large number of Meissner's corpuscles.
B) The appearance of visible, silvery-white scars is an indication of stretching of the dermis.
C) The blood vessels in the dermis rupture and the blood passes through the tissue, causing "black and blue marks."
D) The stretching causes the tension lines to disappear.


Answer: B) The appearance of visible, silvery-white scars is an indication of the stretching of the dermis.

The dermis has two major layers; which of the following constitutes 80% of the dermis and is responsible for the tension lines in the skin?

The dermis has two major layers; which of the following constitutes 80% of the dermis and is responsible for the tension lines in the skin? 

A) the reticular layer
B) the subcutaneous layer
C) the hypodermal layer
D) the papillary layer


Answer: A) the reticular layer

The dermis is a strong, flexible connective tissue layer. Which of the following cell types are likely to be found in the dermis?

The dermis is a strong, flexible connective tissue layer. Which of the following cell types are likely to be found in the dermis? 

A) goblet cells, parietal cells, and Kupffer cells
B) monocytes, reticulocytes, and osteocytes
C) fibroblasts, macrophages, and mast cells
D) osteoblasts, osteoclasts, and epithelial cells


Answer: C) fibroblasts, macrophages, and mast cells

Water loss through the epidermis could cause a serious threat to health and well-being. Which of the following protects us against excessive water loss through the skin?

Water loss through the epidermis could cause a serious threat to health and well-being. Which of the following protects us against excessive water loss through the skin? 

A) Lamellated granules of the cells of the stratum granulosum, a glycolipid that is secreted into extracellular spaces.
B) The size and shape of the cells that make up the stratum spinosum, as well as the thick bundles of intermediate filaments.
C) The dermis is the thickest portion of the skin and water cannot pass through it.
D) Fat associated with skin prevents water loss.


Answer: A) Lamellated granules of the cells of the stratum granulosum, a glycolipid that is secreted into extracellular spaces.

The integumentary system is protected by the action of cells that arise from bone marrow and migrate to the epidermis. Which of the following cells serve this function?

The integumentary system is protected by the action of cells that arise from bone marrow and migrate to the epidermis. Which of the following cells serve this function? 

A) cells found in the stratum spinosum
B) macrophages called Langerhans' cells
C) keratinocytes because they are so versatile
D) Merkel cells


Answer: B) macrophages called Langerhans' cells

The epidermis consists of five layers of cells, each layer with a distinct role to play in the health, well-being, and functioning of the skin. Which of the following layers is responsible for cell division and replacement?

The epidermis consists of five layers of cells, each layer with a distinct role to play in the health, well-being, and functioning of the skin. Which of the following layers is responsible for cell division and replacement? 

A) stratum corneum
B) stratum granulosum
C) stratum basale
D) stratum lucidum


Answer: C) stratum basale

Melanocytes and keratinocytes work together in protecting the skin from UV damage when keratinocytes ________.

Melanocytes and keratinocytes work together in protecting the skin from UV damage when keratinocytes ________. 

A) provide the melanocyte with a protective shield against abrasion
B) accumulate the melanin granules on their superficial portion, forming a UV-blocking pigment layer
C) maintain the appropriate pH in order for the melanocyte to synthesize melanin granules
D) maintain the appropriate temperature so the product of the melanocyte will not denature


Answer: B) accumulate the melanin granules on their superficial portion, forming a UV-blocking pigment layer

Keratinocytes are an important epidermal cell because ________.

Keratinocytes are an important epidermal cell because ________. 

A) they produce a fibrous protein that gives the skin much of its protective properties
B) they are able to transform from living cells to plasma membranes and still function
C) they are able to reproduce sporadically as needed
D) they are a powerful defence against damaging UV rays


Answer: A) they produce a fibrous protein that gives the skin much of its protective properties

The epidermis is responsible for protecting the body against the invasion of bacteria and other foreign agents primarily because it is composed of ________.

The epidermis is responsible for protecting the body against the invasion of bacteria and other foreign agents primarily because it is composed of ________. 

A) stratified columnar epithelium
B) three layers of keratinized cells only
C) four different cell shapes found in five distinct layers, each cell shape with a special function
D) a tough layer of connective tissue


Answer: C) four different cell shapes found in five distinct layers, each cell shape with a special function

The reason the hypodermis acts as a shock absorber is that ________.

The reason the hypodermis acts as a shock absorber is that ________. 

A) it is located just below the epidermis and protects the dermis from shock
B) it has no delicate nerve endings and can, therefore, absorb more shock
C) the major part of its makeup is adipose, which serves as an effective shock absorber
D) the cells that make up the hypodermis secrete a protective mucus


Answer: C) the major part of its makeup is adipose, which serves as an effective shock absorber

Nutrients reach the surface of the skin (epidermis) through the process of ________.

Nutrients reach the surface of the skin (epidermis) through the process of ________. 

A) absorbing materials applied to the surface layer of the skin
B) utilizing the products of merocrine glands to nourish the epidermis
C) filtration
D) diffusing through the tissue fluid from blood vessels in the dermis


Answer: D) diffusing through the tissue fluid from blood vessels in the dermis

The ________ gland is a modified sudoriferous gland that secretes wax.

The ________ gland is a modified sudoriferous gland that secretes wax. 

A) eccrine
B) apocrine
C) ceruminous
D) mammary


Answer: C) ceruminous

Vernix caseosa is a ________.

Vernix caseosa is a ________. 

A) substance contributing to acne during adolescence
B) whitish material produced by fetal sebaceous glands
C) coat of fine, downy hair on the heads of balding men
D) cheesy-looking sudoriferous secretion on the skin of newborns


Answer: B) whitish material produced by fetal sebaceous glands

The function of the root hair plexus is to ________.

The function of the root hair plexus is to ________. 

A) serve as a source for new epidermal cells for hair growth after the resting stage has passed
B) bind the hair root to the dermis
C) cause apocrine gland secretion into the hair follicle
D) allow the hair to assist in touch sensation


Answer: D) allow the hair to assist in touch sensation

Although the integument is a covering, it is by no means simple, and some of its functions include ________.

Although the integument is a covering, it is by no means simple, and some of its functions include ________. 

A) the dermis providing the major mechanical barrier to chemicals, water, and other external substances
B) resident macrophage-like cells whose function is to ingest antigenic invaders and present them to the immune system
C) cooling the body by increasing the action of sebaceous glands during high-temperature conditions
D) epidermal blood vessels serving as a blood reservoir


Answer: B) resident macrophage-like cells whose function is to ingest antigenic invaders and present them to the immune system

Sudoriferous glands vary in distribution over the surface of the body. Which of the following is correct?

Sudoriferous glands vary in distribution over the surface of the body. Which of the following is correct? 

A) Eccrine are the most numerous, being found primarily in the axillary regions.
B) Apocrine glands are larger than eccrine, and empty secretions directly to the surface of the skin.
C) Ceruminous glands secrete cerumen, which is thought to deter insects.
D) Mammary glands are not considered a modified sweat gland.


Answer: C) Ceruminous glands secrete cerumen, which is thought to deter insects.

Which statement correctly explains why hair appears the way it does?

Which statement correctly explains why hair appears the way it does? 

A) Kinky hair has flat, ribbonlike hair shafts.
B) Perfectly round hair shafts result in wavy hair.
C) Air bubbles in the hair shaft cause straight hair.
D) Gray hair is the result of hormonal action altering the chemical composition of melanin.


Answer: A) Kinky hair has flat, ribbonlike hair shafts.

Melanocytes ________.

Melanocytes ________. 

A) are spidery-shaped cells in contact with cells in the stratum basale
B) are involved in the immune system
C) are involved with the nervous system
D) work their way up to the surface just like the keratinocytes


Answer: A) are spidery-shaped cells in contact with cells in the stratum basale

Which of the following cutaneous receptors is specialized for the reception of touch or light pressure?

Which of the following cutaneous receptors is specialized for the reception of touch or light pressure? 

A) Meissner's corpuscles
B) Pacinian corpuscles
C) free nerve endings
D) Krause's end bulbs


Answer: A) Meissner's corpuscles

If a splinter penetrated the skin into the second epidermal layer of the sole of the foot, which cells would be damaged?

If a splinter penetrated the skin into the second epidermal layer of the sole of the foot, which cells would be damaged? 

A) granulosum
B) basale
C) lucidum
D) spinosum


Answer: C) lucidum

Which muscles attached to the hair follicles cause goosebumps?

Which muscles attached to the hair follicles cause goosebumps? 

A) arrector integument
B) arrector pili
C) levator folliculi
D) arrector folliculi


Answer: B) arrector pili

The dermis ________.

The dermis ________. 

A) is an avascular connective tissue layer
B) has two layers
C) lacks sensory corpuscles and glands
D) is where melanocytes are found


Answer: B) has two layers

Acne is a disorder associated with ________.

Acne is a disorder associated with ________. 

A) sweat glands
B) sebaceous glands
C) Meibomian glands
D) ceruminous glands


Answer: B) sebaceous glands

The major regions of a hair shaft include all of the following except ________.

The major regions of a hair shaft include all of the following except ________. 

A) medulla
B) cortex
C) external root sheath
D) cuticle


Answer: C) external root sheath

A needle would pierce the epidermal layers of the forearm in which order?

A needle would pierce the epidermal layers of the forearm in which order? 

A) basale, spinosum, granulosum, corneum
B) basale, spinosum, granulosum, lucidum, corneum
C) granulosum, basale, spinosum, corneum
D) corneum, granulosum, spinosum, basale


Answer: D) corneum, granulosum, spinosum, basale

________ is an inherited condition that affects the heme pathway; it leaves the skin scarred and gums degenerated and may have led to the folklore about vampires.

________ is an inherited condition that affects the heme pathway; it leaves the skin scarred and gums degenerated and may have led to the folklore about vampires. 

A) Porphyria
B) Decubitus ulcer
C) Impetigo
D) Rosacea


Answer: A) Porphyria

Select the most correct statement concerning skin cancer.

Select the most correct statement concerning skin cancer. 

A) Most tumors that arise on the skin are malignant.
B) Squamous cell carcinomas arise from the stratum corneum.
C) Basal cell carcinomas are the least common but most malignant.
D) Melanomas are rare but must be removed quickly to prevent them from metastasizing.


Answer: D) Melanomas are rare but must be removed quickly to prevent them from metastasizing.

Mesenchymal cells are most commonly found in ________ connective tissue.

Mesenchymal cells are most commonly found in ________ connective tissue. 

A) areolar
B) dense regular
C) embryonic
D) reticular


Answer: C) embryonic

What would be a substance you would expect to find expelled from a compound alveolar gland?

What would be a substance you would expect to find expelled from a compound alveolar gland? 

A) milk
B) acid
C) oil
D) salivary fluid


Answer: A) milk

In adults, new surface epithelial cells and the epithelial cells lining the intestine are derived from _________.

In adults, new surface epithelial cells and the epithelial cells lining the intestine are derived from _________. 

A) mitotic division of existing epithelial cells
B) stem cells
C) underlying epithelial cells
D) components of the connective tissue


Answer: B) stem cells

Select the correct statement regarding factors that affect the tissue repair process.

Select the correct statement regarding factors that affect the tissue repair process. 

A) The type of tissue injured is not an important factor.
B) Nutrition does not seem to influence tissue repair.
C) The age of the person is a factor in the repair process.
D) The health of an individual does not seem to make any difference in the speed of repair.


Answer: C) The age of the person is a factor in the repair process.

________ are commonly found wedged between simple columnar epithelial cells.

________ are commonly found wedged between simple columnar epithelial cells. 

A) Goblet cells
B) Mast cells
C) Macrophages
D) Cilia


Answer: A) Goblet cells

Select the correct statement regarding adipose tissue.

Select the correct statement regarding adipose tissue. 

A) It is composed mostly of extracellular matrix.
B) Its primary function is nutrient storage.
C) Mature adipose cells are highly mitotic.
D) Most of the cell volume is occupied by the nucleus.


Answer: B) Its primary function is nutrient storage.

Select the correct statement regarding epithelia.

Select the correct statement regarding epithelia. 

A) Simple epithelia form impermeable barriers.
B) Stratified epithelia are tall, narrow cells.
C) Stratified epithelia are present where protection from abrasion is important.
D) Pseudostratified epithelia consist of at least two layers of cells stacked on top of one another.

Answer: C) Stratified epithelia are present where protection from abrasion is important.

Select the correct statement regarding tissue repair.

Select the correct statement regarding tissue repair. 

A) Granulation tissue is highly susceptible to infection.
B) Inflammation causes capillaries to dilate and become permeable.
C) Granulation tissue is another name for a blood clot.
D) The clot is formed from dried blood and transposed collagen fibers.


Answer: B) Inflammation causes capillaries to dilate and become permeable.

Select the correct statement regarding the cells of connective tissue.

Select the correct statement regarding the cells of connective tissue. 

A) Connective tissue does not contain cells.
B) Connective tissue cells are nondividing.
C) Chondroblasts are the main cell type of connective tissue proper.
D) "Blast" cells are undifferentiated, actively dividing cells.


Answer: D) "Blast" cells are undifferentiated, actively dividing cells.

Which of the following statements is true of connective tissue?

Which of the following statements is true of connective tissue? 

A) Elastin fibers are sometimes called white fibers.
B) When connective tissue is stretched, collagen gives it the ability to snap back.
C) Collagen fibers provide high tensile strength.
D) Reticular fibers form thick, ropelike structures.

Answer: C) Collagen fibers provide high tensile strength.

The three main components of connective tissue are ________.

The three main components of connective tissue are ________. 

A) ground substance, fibers, and cells
B) alveoli, fibrous capsule, and secretory cells
C) collagen, elastin, and reticular fibers
D) fibroblasts, chondroblasts, and osteoblasts


Answer: A) ground substance, fibers, and cells

Select the correct statement regarding multicellular exocrine glands.

Select the correct statement regarding multicellular exocrine glands. 

A) Compound glands are so called because they are constructed from more than one cell type.
B) The secretory cells of holocrine glands release their product by rupturing.
C) Exocrine glands always lack ducts.
D) Merocrine glands release their secretion by pinching off part of the cell.


Answer: B) The secretory cells of holocrine glands release their product by rupturing.

The first step in tissue repair involves ________.

The first step in tissue repair involves ________. 

A) replacement of destroyed tissue by the same kind of cells
B) proliferation of fibrous connective tissue
C) inflammation
D) formation of scar tissue


Answer: C) inflammation

Which is true concerning muscle tissue?

Which is true concerning muscle tissue? 

A) highly cellular and well vascularized
B) cuboidal shape enhances function
C) contains contractile units made of collagen
D) is a single-celled tissue


Answer: A) highly cellular and well vascularized

What are glycosaminoglycans?

What are glycosaminoglycans? 

A) positively charged proteins
B) negatively charged proteins
C) positively charged polysaccharides
D) negatively charged polysaccharides


Answer: D) negatively charged polysaccharides

Which of these is not considered connective tissue?

Which of these is not considered connective tissue? 

A) cartilage
B) adipose
C) muscle
D) blood


Answer: C) muscle

Which of the following is true about the mode of secretion of exocrine glands?

Which of the following is true about the mode of secretion of exocrine glands? 

A) Merocrine glands are not altered by the secretory process.
B) Apocrine cells are destroyed, then replaced after secretion.
C) Holocrine cells are slightly damaged by the secretory process but repair themselves.
D) These glands are ductless.


Answer: A) Merocrine glands are not altered by the secretory process.

Multicellular exocrine glands can be classified ________.

Multicellular exocrine glands can be classified ________. 

A) structurally into alveolar and acinar types
B) structurally into vascular and avascular types
C) functionally into merocrine, holocrine, and apocrine divisions
D) functionally into secreting or nonsecreting types


Answer: C) functionally into merocrine, holocrine, and apocrine divisions

An epithelial membrane ________.

An epithelial membrane ________. 

A) usually involves transitional epithelium
B) is formed of epithelium and smooth muscle
C) contains simple or stratified epithelia and a basement membrane
D) never contains mucus-forming cells


Answer: C) contains simple or stratified epithelia and a basement membrane

A multilayered epithelium with cuboidal basal cells and flat cells at its surface would be classified as ________.

A multilayered epithelium with cuboidal basal cells and flat cells at its surface would be classified as ________. 

A) simple cuboidal
B) simple squamous
C) transitional
D) stratified squamous


Answer: D) stratified squamous

________ epithelium appears to have two or three layers of cells, but all the cells are in contact with the basement membrane.

________ epithelium appears to have two or three layers of cells, but all the cells are in contact with the basement membrane. 

A) Stratified cuboidal
B) Stratified columnar
C) Transitional
D) Pseudostratified columnar


Answer: D) Pseudostratified columnar

Chondroblasts ________.

Chondroblasts ________. 

A) are mature cartilage cells located in spaces called lacunae
B) within the cartilage, divide and secrete new matrix
C) located deep to the perichondrium divide and secrete new matrix on the internal portions of the cartilage
D) never lose their ability to divide


Answer: B) within the cartilage, divide and secrete new matrix

Which of the following is true about epithelia?

Which of the following is true about epithelia? 

A) Simple epithelia are commonly found in areas of high abrasion.
B) Stratified epithelia are associated with filtration.
C) Endothelium provides a slick surface lining all hollow cardiovascular organs.
D) Pseudostratified epithelia are commonly keratinized.


Answer: C) Endothelium provides a slick surface lining all hollow cardiovascular organs.

Glands, such as the thyroid, that secrete their products directly into the blood rather than through ducts are classified as ________.

Glands, such as the thyroid, that secrete their products directly into the blood rather than through ducts are classified as ________. 

A) exocrine
B) endocrine
C) sebaceous
D) ceruminous


Answer: B) endocrine

Inability to absorb digested nutrients and secrete mucus might indicate a disorder in which tissue?

Inability to absorb digested nutrients and secrete mucus might indicate a disorder in which tissue? 

A) simple squamous
B) transitional
C) simple columnar
D) stratified squamous


Answer: C) simple columnar

The shape of the external ear is maintained by ________.

The shape of the external ear is maintained by ________. 

A) adipose tissue
B) elastic cartilage
C) hyaline cartilage
D) fibrocartilage


Answer: B) elastic cartilage

Organized groups of cells (plus their intercellular substances) that have a common purpose form a(n) ________.

Organized groups of cells (plus their intercellular substances) that have a common purpose form a(n) ________. 

A) organ
B) tissue
C) organism
D) organ system


Answer: B) tissue

The fiber type that gives connective tissue great tensile strength is ________.

The fiber type that gives connective tissue great tensile strength is ________. 

A) elastic
B) collagen
C) reticular
D) muscle


Answer: B) collagen

The tissue type that arises from all three embryonic germ layers is ________.

The tissue type that arises from all three embryonic germ layers is ________. 

A) epithelial tissue
B) connective tissue
C) nervous tissue
D) muscle tissue


Answer: A) epithelial tissue

Cell types likely to be seen in areolar connective tissue include all except: ________.

Cell types likely to be seen in areolar connective tissue include all except: ________. 

A) chondrocytes
B) fibroblasts
C) macrophages
D) mast cells


Answer: A) chondrocytes

Matrix is ________.

Matrix is ________. 

A) cells and fibers
B) fibers and ground substance
C) ground substance and cells
D) composed of all organic compounds


Answer: B) fibers and ground substance

Which statement best describes connective tissue?

Which statement best describes connective tissue? 

A) usually contains a large amount of matrix
B) always arranged in a single layer of cells
C) primarily concerned with secretion
D) usually lines a body cavity


Answer: A) usually contains a large amount of matrix

A single-celled layer of epithelium that forms the lining of serous membranes is ________.

A single-celled layer of epithelium that forms the lining of serous membranes is ________. 

A) simple transitional
B) simple columnar
C) simple squamous
D) simple cuboidal


Answer: C) simple squamous

Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium ________.

Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium ________. 

A) lines the respiratory tract
B) aids in digestion
C) possesses no goblet cells
D) is not an epithelial classification


Answer: A) lines the respiratory tract

Simple columnar epithelium of the digestive tract is characterized by ________.

Simple columnar epithelium of the digestive tract is characterized by ________. 

A) dense microvilli
B) a rich vascular supply
C) fibroblasts
D) cilia


Answer: A) dense microvilli

Mammary glands exhibit a glandular type called ________.

Mammary glands exhibit a glandular type called ________. 

A) simple tubular
B) compound tubular
C) simple alveolar
D) compound alveolar


Answer: D) compound alveolar

Which of the following would be of most importance to goblet cells and other glandular epithelium?

Which of the following would be of most importance to goblet cells and other glandular epithelium?

A) microvilli
B) Golgi bodies
C) lysosomes
D) multiple nuclei


Answer: B) Golgi bodies

Epithelial tissue ________.

Epithelial tissue ________. 

A) is highly vascularized
B) has a basement membrane
C) is usually acellular
D) contains a number of neuron types


Answer: B) has a basement membrane

Hyaline cartilage is different from elastic or fibrocartilage because ________.

Hyaline cartilage is different from elastic or fibrocartilage because ________. 

A) it is more vascularized
B) it contains more nuclei
C) fibers are not normally visible
D) it has more elastic fibers


Answer: C) fibers are not normally visible

The presence of lacunae, calcium salts, and blood vessels would indicate ________.

The presence of lacunae, calcium salts, and blood vessels would indicate ________. 

A) cartilage tissue
B) fibrocartilaginous tissue
C) osseous tissue
D) areolar tissue


Answer: C) osseous tissue

The reason that intervertebral discs exhibit a large amount of tensile strength to absorb shock is because they possess ________.

The reason that intervertebral discs exhibit a large amount of tensile strength to absorb shock is because they possess ________. 

A) hydroxyapatite crystals
B) collagen fibers
C) reticular fibers
D) elastic fibers


B) collagen fibers

Which of the following is not found in the matrix of cartilage but is in bone?

Which of the following is not found in the matrix of cartilage but is in bone? 

A) live cells
B) lacunae
C) blood vessels
D) organic fibers


Answer: C) blood vessels

In a multicellular organism, nerve cells are different from muscle cells because

In a multicellular organism, nerve cells are different from muscle cells because 

a. each cell type has a unique set of transcription factors and repressors, so it expresses a specific set of genes.
b. each type of cell within a multicellular organism contains a different set of genes.
c. random events within each cell regulate the expression of genes and result in different genes being expressed in different cells.
d. cells gain and lose different genes during embryonic development, so each cell in an adult only has some genes from the original set,


Answer: a. each cell type has a unique set of transcription factors and repressors, so it expresses a specific set of genes.

Hox genes determine an animal's

Hox genes determine an animal's 

a. body plan.
b. size.
c. skin color.
d. eye color.


Answer: a. body plan.

What regulates the expression of most eukaryotic genes?

What regulates the expression of most eukaryotic genes? 

a. mRNA
b. transcription factors
c. dicer enzymes
d. silencing complexes


Answer: b. transcription factors

Specialized cells regulate the expression of genes because they

Specialized cells regulate the expression of genes because they 

a. do not want the genes to become worn out.
b. cannot control the translation of proteins.
c. do not carry the complete genetic code in their nuclei.
d. do not need the proteins that are specified by certain genes


Answer: d. do not need the proteins that are specified by certain genes

Gene regulation in eukaryotes

Gene regulation in eukaryotes 

a. usually involves operons.
b. is simpler than in prokaryotes.
c. allows for cell specialization.
d. includes the action of an operator region


Answer: c. allows for cell specialization.

Which of the following is involved in regulating gene expression in prokaryotes, but not in eukaryotes?

Which of the following is involved in regulating gene expression in prokaryotes, but not in eukaryotes? 

a. operon
b. TATA box
c. promoter sequences
d. enhancer sequences


Answer: a. operon

Which is involved with the regulation of eukaryotic genes?

Which is involved with the regulation of eukaryotic genes? 

a. operon
b. DNA polymerase
c. TATA box
d. operator


Answer: c. TATA box

When E. coli is grown on glucose, and there is no lactose available

When E. coli is grown on glucose, and there is no lactose available 

a. lactose molecules bind to the lac repressor.
b. the lac repressor binds to the operator of the lac operon.
c. RNA polymerase binds to the promoter of the lac operon.
d. the lac genes are transcribed into messenger RNA.


Answer: b. the lac repressor binds to the operator of the lac operon.

A lac repressor turns OFF the expression of the lac genes by

A lac repressor turns OFF the expression of the lac genes by 

a. binding to the promoter.
b. DNA polymerase.
c. binding to the operator.
d. binding to the lac genes.



Answer: c. binding to the operator.

In E, coli, the lac operon controls the

In E, coli, the lac operon controls the 

a. breakdown of lactose.
b. production of lactose.
c. breakdown of glucose.
d. production of glucose


Answer: a. breakdown of lactose.

Which of the following statements is true about gene regulation in prokaryotes?

Which of the following statements is true about gene regulation in prokaryotes? 

a. Promoters determine whether a gene is expressed.
b. Expressed genes make more DNA.
c. DNA-binding proteins determine whether a gene is expressed.
d. RNA polymerase regulates gene expression.


Answer: c. DNA-binding proteins determine whether a gene is expressed.

What are some characteristics of polyploidy plants?

What are some characteristics of polyploidy plants? 

a. They tend to be weaker and smaller than diploid plants.
b. They tend to be bigger and stronger than diploid plants.
c. They tend to be weaker, but bigger than diploid plants.
d. They tend to be smaller, but stronger than diploid plants.


Answer: b. They tend to be bigger and stronger than diploid plants.

Most mutations

Most mutations 

a. have no effect on an organism.
b. are fatal to an organism.
e. are helpful to an organism.
d. are harmful to an organism.


Answer: a. have no effect on an organism.

When a chromosome undergoes a deletion mutation, information is

When a chromosome undergoes a deletion mutation, information is 

a. repeated.
b. lost.
c. reversed.
d. transferred


Answer: b. lost.

One difference between a gene mutation and a chromosomal mutation is that

One difference between a gene mutation and a chromosomal mutation is that 

a. A gene mutation affects the DNA of more genes than a chromosomal mutation.
b. A gene mutation can involve insertion or deletion, but cannot result in a frameshift.
c. A chromosomal mutation can change the number of chromosomes in a cell.
d. A chromosomal mutation is more likely to be passed on to offspring or daughter cells.


Answer: c. A chromosomal mutation can change the number of chromosomes in a cell.

Which of the following is a chromosomal mutation?

Which of the following is a chromosomal mutation?

a. inversion
b. insertion
c. point mutation
d. substitution


Answer: a. inversion

A mutation that involves one or a few nucleotides is called

A mutation that involves one or a few nucleotides is called 

a. a mutagen.
h. an inversion.
c. a point mutation.
d. a translocation.


Answer: c. a point mutation.

In eukaryotes

In eukaryotes 

a. Transcription takes place in the cytoplasm, and translation takes place in the nucleus.
b. Transcription takes place in the nucleus, and translation takes place in the cytoplasm.
c. Transcription and translation both take place in the nucleus.
d. Transcription and translation both take place in the cytoplasm.


Answer: b. Transcription takes place in the nucleus, and translation takes place in the cytoplasm.

Which of the following best describes what happens during gene expression?

Which of the following best describes what happens during gene expression? 

a. A cell reads the instructions in DNA and builds a protein based on those instructions.
b. A gene is copied many times so that all of a cell's daughter cells will have their own copy.
c. The nucleus of a cell builds cellular proteins based on the sequence of the mRNA code.
d. A single gene leaves the nucleus of a cell and travels through the cytoplasm to the membrane.


Answer: a. A cell reads the instructions in DNA and builds a protein based on those instructions.

What is an exception to the central dogma of molecular biology?

What is an exception to the central dogma of molecular biology? 

a. Viruses sometimes transfer information from RNA to DNA.
b. Viruses sometimes transfer information from DNA to RNA.
c. Viruses sometimes transfer information from proteins to DNA.
d. Viruses can translate without RNA.


Answer: a. Viruses sometimes transfer information from RNA to DNA.

Which is the correct sequence of the transfer of information in most organisms?

Which is the correct sequence of the transfer of information in most organisms? 

a. protein to DNA to RNA
b. RNA to DNA to protein
c. DNA to RNA to protein
d. RNA to protein to DNA



Answer: c. DNA to RNA to protein

Genes contain instructions for assembling

Genes contain instructions for assembling 

a. operons.
b. nucleosomes.
c. proteins.
d. mutagens.


Answer: c. proteins.

A protein is being assembled when

A protein is being assembled when 

a. DNA is being translated.
b. RNA is being transcribed.
c. RNA is being translated.
d. DNA is being transcribed.


Answer: c. RNA is being translated.

During translation, the type of amino acid that is added to the growing polypeptide depends on the

During translation, the type of amino acid that is added to the growing polypeptide depends on the 

a. codon on the mRI'A and the anticodon on the rRNA.
b. anticodon on the mRNA and the anticodon on the tRNA
c. anticodon on the rRNA and the codon on the mRNA.
d. codon on the mRNA and the anticodon on the tRNA.


Answer: d. codon on the mRNA and the anticodon on the tRNA.

Which of the following terms is LEAST closely related to the others?

Which of the following terms is LEAST closely related to the others? 

a. spindle fiber
b. tRNA
c. polypeptide
d. anticodon


Answer: a. spindle fiber

What happens during translation?

What happens during translation? 

a. Messenger RNA is made &om a DNA code.
b. The cell uses a messenger RNA code to make proteins.
c. Transfer RNA is made from a messenger RNA code.
d. Copies of DNA molecules are made.


Answer: b. The cell uses a messenger RNA code to make proteins.

A promoter is a

A promoter is a 

a. binding site for DNA polymerase.
b. binding site for RNA polymerase.
c. start signal for replication.
d. stop signal for transcription.


Answer: b. binding site for RNA polymerase.

There are 64 codons and 20 amino acids. Which of the following is true?

There are 64 codons and 20 amino acids. Which of the following is true? 

a. Several different codons can specify the same amino acid
b. Each codon specifies a different amino acid.
c. Some amino acids have no link to a codon.
d. Each amino acid is specified by only one codon


Answer: a. Several different codons can specify the same amino acid

How many nucleotides are needed to specify three amino acids?

How many nucleotides are needed to specify three amino acids? 

a. 3
b. 6
c. 9
d. 12


Answer: c. 9

During eukaryotic transcription, an RNA molecule is formed that is

During eukaryotic transcription, an RNA molecule is formed that is 

a. complementary to both strands of DNA.
b. identical to an entire single strand of DNA.
c. double-stranded and inside the nucleus.
d. complementary to part of one strand of DNA.


Answer: d. complementary to part of one strand of DNA.

What is produced during transcription?

What is produced during transcription? 

a. RNA molecules
b. DNA molecules
c. RNA polymerase
d. proteins


Answer: a. RNA molecules

From which molecules are rnRNA molecules transcribed?

From which molecules are rnRNA molecules transcribed? 

a. tRNA
b. rRNA
c. DNA
d. proteins


Answer: c. DNA

Which molecules are involved in protein synthesis?

Which molecules are involved in protein synthesis?

a. transfer RNA, introns, and mutagens
b. messenger RNA, introns, and ribosomal RNA
c. ribosomal RNA, transfer RNA, and mutagens
d. messenger RNA, ribosomal RNA, and transfer RNA


Answer: d. messenger RNA, ribosomal RNA, and transfer RNA

Which of the following statements is true of eukaryotic DNA?

Which of the following statements is true of eukaryotic DNA? 

a. A promoter is part of an intron.
b. An intron is part of a promoter.
c. Introns are sequences of DNA.
d. Exons are edited out of pre-mRNA


Answer: c. Introns are sequences of DNA.

Which of the following is true of transcription?

Which of the following is true of transcription? 

a. In eukaryotes, transcription takes place in the cytoplasm and requires many enzymes,
b. RNA polymerase recognizes and binds to specific regions of the DNA called introns
c. RNA editing removes the exons from pre-mRNA, leaving only the introns in the final molecule.
d. RNA polymerase can make many molecules of RNA from a single DNA sequence.


Answer: d. RNA polymerase can make many molecules of RNA from a single DNA sequence.

Which type of RNA brings the information in the genetic code from the nucleus to other parts of the cell?

Which type of RNA brings the information in the genetic code from the nucleus to other parts of the cell? 

a. rRNA
b. tRNA
c. mRNA
d. RNA polymerase


Answer: c. mRNA

Which of the following is true?

Which of the following is true? 

a. RNA is usually single-stranded.
b. DNA is usually single-stranded.
c. DNA contains uracil.
d. RNA contains thymine.


Answer: a. RNA is usually single-stranded.

Which of the following are found in both DNA and RNA?

Which of the following are found in both DNA and RNA? 

a. ribose, phosphate groups, and adenine
b. deoxyribose, phosphate groups, and guanine
c. phosphate groups, guanine, and cytosine
d. phosphate groups, guanine, and thymine


Answer: c. phosphate groups, guanine, and cytosine

Unlike DNA, RNA contains

Unlike DNA, RNA contains 

a. adenine.
b. uracil.
c. phosphate groups.
d. thymine.


Answer: b. uracil.

RNA contains the sugar

RNA contains the sugar 

a. ribose.
b. deoxyribose.
c. glucose.
d. lactose.


Answer: a. ribose.

In both prokaryotes and eukaryotes, DNA replication happens a. before cell division.

In both prokaryotes and eukaryotes, DNA replication happens 

a. before cell division. 

b. in the nucleus.
c. only to telomeres.
d. around the histones.


Answer: a. before cell division.

In both prokaryotes and eukaryotes, how many copies of the chromosome are left after replication?

In both prokaryotes and eukaryotes, how many copies of the chromosome are left after replication? 

a. I
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4


Answer: b. 2

What binds to the prokaryotic chromosome to start DNA replication?

What binds to the prokaryotic chromosome to start DNA replication? 

a. replication forks
b. regulatory proteins
c. chromatids
d. telomeres


Answer: b. regulatory proteins

Which would be greater in a eukaryote than in a prokaryote?

Which would be greater in a eukaryote than in a prokaryote? 

a. The percentage of guanine nucleotides,
b. The total number of base pairs in a chromosome.
c. The number of replication forks on a strand of DNA.
d. The total amount of DNA in a cell.


Answer: c. The number of replication forks on a strand of DNA.

In eukaryotes, DNA

In eukaryotes, DNA 

a. is located in the nucleus.
b. floats freely in the cytoplasm.
c. is located in the ribosomes.
d. is circular.


Answer: a. is located in the nucleus.

Which of the following include all the others?

Which of the following include all the others? 

a. DNA molecules
b. histones
c. chromosomes
d. nucleosomes


Answer: c. chromosomes

What enzyme works to add DNA to ends of chromosomes in rapidly dividing cells such as those found in an embryo, to prevent genes from being lost during replication?

What enzyme works to add DNA to ends of chromosomes in rapidly dividing cells such as those found in an embryo, to prevent genes from being lost during replication? 

a. DNA polymerase
b. histones
c. telomerase
d. chromatin


Answer: d. chromatin

During DNA replication, a DNA strand that has the bases CTAGGT produces a strand with the bases

During DNA replication, a DNA strand that has the bases CTAGGT produces a strand with the bases

 a. TCGAAC.
b. GATCCA
c. AGCTTG.
d. GAUCCA


Answer: b. GATCCA

DNA replication results in two DNA molecules?

DNA replication results in two DNA molecules? 

a. each with two new strands.
b. one with two new strands and the other with two original strands.
c. each with one new strand and one original strand.
d. each with two original strands.


Answer: c. each with one new strand and one original strand.

Watson and Crick discovered the two strands in DNA

Watson and Crick discovered the two strands in DNA 

a. run in perpendicular directions.
b. run in the same direction.
c. run in opposite directions.
d. run in random directions.


Answer: c. run in opposite directions.

What did Rosalind Franklin contribute to the effort to identify the structure of DNA?

What did Rosalind Franklin contribute to the effort to identify the structure of DNA? 

a. models made of cardboard and wire showing the shape of DNA
b. the ratios of the two sets of nucleotide pairs in DNA
c. radioactive evidence that DNA carried the genetic code
d. x-ray diffraction photos of the DNA molecule


Answer: d. x-ray diffraction photos of the DNA molecule

Which of the following forms a base pair with thymine?

Which of the following forms a base pair with thymine? 

a. deoxyribose
b. adenine
c.guanine
d. cytosine


Answer: b. adenine

What is the chronological order of the important discoveries in the structure of DNA?

What is the chronological order of the important discoveries in the structure of DNA? 

a. Franklin makes an X-ray diffraction photo of DNA -* Chargaff' s ratios of nucleotides -+
Watson and Crick identify the double helix
b. Franklin makes an X-ray diffraction photo of DNA - Watson and Crick identify the
double helix-> Chargaff' s ratios of nucleotides
c. Chargaff' s ratios of nucleotides -> Watson and Crick identify the double helix-> Franklin makes an X-ray diffraction photo of DNA
d. Chargaff's ratios of nucleotides -> Franklin makes an X-ray diffraction photo of DNA -> Watson and Crick identify the double helix


Answer: d. Chargaff's ratios of nucleotides -> Franklin makes an X-ray diffraction photo of DNA -> Watson and Crick identify the double helix

Which scientist made x-ray diffraction photos of DNA?

Which scientist made x-ray diffraction photos of DNA? 

a. Franklin
b. Chargaff
c. Watson
d. Avery


Answer: a. Franklin

In the Hershey-Chase experiment, what happened to the bacteria that lead been infected by viruses that had radioactive DNA, and to the bacteria that had been infected with viruses that had been marked with radioactive proteins?

In the Hershey-Chase experiment, what happened to the bacteria that lead been infected by viruses that had radioactive DNA, and to the bacteria that had been infected with viruses that had been marked with radioactive proteins? 

a. The bacteria infected with viruses that had radioactive DNA had become radioactive. The bacteria that had been infected with viruses marked with radioactive proteins were not radioactive.
b. The bacteria infected with viruses that had radioactive proteins had become radioactive.
The bacteria that had been infected with viruses marked with radioactive DNA were not
radioactive.
c. The bacteria infected with viruses that had radioactive DNA had become radioactive.
The bacteria that had been infected with viruses marked with radioactive proteins had
also became radioactive.
d. The bacteria infected with viruses that had radioactive DNA had not become
radioactive. The bacteria that had been infected with viruses marked with radioactive
proteins had also not become radioactive.


Answer: a. The bacteria infected with viruses that had radioactive DNA had become radioactive. The bacteria that had been infected with viruses marked with radioactive proteins were not radioactive.

Which of the following statements correctly describes Chargaff's contribution to the study of DNA?

Which of the following statements correctly describes Chargaff's contribution to the study of DNA?

a. Chargaff hypothesized that DNA was a double helix, but he did not produce the image
that proved this fact.
b. Chargaff's experiments conclusively proved that DNA was made of nucleotides, but he
could not show that there four types of nitrogenous bases.
c. Chargaffs showed that adenine and thymine were found in equal percentages in DNA, but he did not know this was because of base-pairing.
d. Chargaff's work proved that DNA could be made using radioactive nucleotides, but he
did not show that DNA could be transferred from one organism to another.


Answer: c. Chargaffs showed that adenine and thymine were found in equal percentages in DNA, but he did not know this was because of base-pairing.

Rosalind Franklin contributed to the understanding of DNA by

Rosalind Franklin contributed to the understanding of DNA by 

a. producing images ofDNA molecules using X-rays.
b. figuring out that DNA strands form a double helix.
c. conducting experiments that showed which nucleotides are complementary.
d. finding that DNA was nucleic acid made up of a long chain of individual nucleotides


Answer: a. producing images ofDNA molecules using X-rays.

Which of the following best describes Rosalind Franklin's contribution to our understanding of the structure

Which of the following best describes Rosalind Franklin's contribution to our understanding of the structure 

of DNA? a. She created many models of DNA based on what was known about its properties, and
eventually figured out that the structure of DNA is a double helix,
b. She purified large amounts of DNA, stretched the fibers so the strands were parallel, and used an X-ray beam to produce an image of the molecule.
c. She isolated DNA from many different organisms, and discovered that in every sample,
the amount of guanine was almost exactly equal to the amount of cytosine.
d. She used radioactive phosphorus and sulfur to produce radioactive viruses, then allowed
these viruses to infect bacteria. She found that DNA was the transforming material.


Answer: b. She purified large amounts of DNA, stretched the fibers so the strands were parallel, and used an X-ray beam to produce an image of the molecule.

DNA makes a good molecule for storing information because a. its bases can be joined together in any order, like the letters of the alphabet can be strung to form different words.

DNA makes a good molecule for storing information because a. its bases can be joined together in any order, like the letters of the alphabet can be strung to form different words. 

b. each nucleotide within a DNA strand can give a cell different information, and there are many nucleotides in every cell
c. it can absorb ultraviolet light, so DNA can help protect cells from the damaging effects
of this form of radiation.
d. it is a type of nucleic acid, and most acids are an important part of information storage
within cells.


Answer: a. its bases can be joined together in any order, like the letters of the alphabet can be strung to form different words.

What structural problem prevents adenine from pairing with guanine?

What structural problem prevents adenine from pairing with guanine? 

a. The bases are both short
b. They lack phosphate groups.
c. They lack the deoxyribose group.
d. The bases are both long.


Answer: d. The bases are both long.

Because of base pairing in DNA, the percentage of

Because of base pairing in DNA, the percentage of 

a. adenine molecules in DNA is about equal to the percentage of guanine molecules.
b. thymine molecules in DNA is about equal to the percentage of adenine molecules
c. adenine molecules in DNA is much greater than the percentage of thymine molecules.
d. cytosine molecules in DNA is much greater than the percentage of guanine molecules.


Answer: b. thymine molecules in DNA is about equal to the percentage of adenine molecules

Which of the following is a nucleotide found in DNA?

Which of the following is a nucleotide found in DNA? 

a. adenine + phosphate group + thymine
b. cytosine + phosphate group + guanine
c. deoxyribose + phosphate group + polyrnerase
d. deoxyribose + phosphate group + cytosine


Answer: d. deoxyribose + phosphate group + cytosine

In which cells is the accurate transmission of information most important?

In which cells is the accurate transmission of information most important? 

a. nerve cells
b. skin cells
c. sex cells
d. bone cells


Answer: c. sex cells

In what way is DNA like a book?

In what way is DNA like a book? 

a. DNA has information organized with an kind of index.
b. DNA has stored information, that can be copied and passed on.
c. DNA has information wrapped in an identifying cover,
d. DNA has information that is periodically updated.



Answer: b. DNA has stored information, that can be copied and passed on.

What happens when a piece of DNA is missing?

What happens when a piece of DNA is missing? 

a. Genetic information is stored.
b. Genetic information is copied.
c. Genetic information is lost
d. Genetic information is transmitted.


Answer: c. Genetic information is lost

What stores information in a cell?

What stores information in a cell? 

a, proteins
b. carbohydrates
c. lipids
d. DNA


Answer: d. DNA

Why did Hershey and Chase label the viral DNA with radioactive phosphorous and not radioactive sulfur?

Why did Hershey and Chase label the viral DNA with radioactive phosphorous and not radioactive sulfur? 

a. DNA contains phosphorus and no sulfur.
b. Proteins contain phosphorus and no sulfur
c. DNA contains sulfur and little phosphorous.
d. Proteins acids contain sulfur and little phosphorous.


Answer: a. DNA contains phosphorus and no sulfur.

What do bacteriophages infect?

What do bacteriophages infect? 

a. mice.
b. humans.
c. viruses.
d. bacteria.


Answer: d. bacteria.

What is inside a bacteriophage?

What is inside a bacteriophage? 

a. protein
b. nucleic acid
c. lipid
d. carbohydrate


Answer: b. nucleic acid

Griffith's experiments advanced the study of genetics by proving that

Griffith's experiments advanced the study of genetics by proving that

a. there is a chemical that contains genetic information that can be passed from one organism to another.
b. bacteria can make people sick by infecting them with a chemical that contains genetic information.
c. the bacteria that can make mice sick are the same bacteria that can be grown in culture dishes in a laboratory.
d. genetic information can be passed from parents to their offspring during sexual reproduction.


Answer: a. there is a chemical that contains genetic information that can be passed from one organism to another.

What property of DNA does bacterial transformation illustrate?

What property of DNA does bacterial transformation illustrate?

a. Bacterial DNA cannot move into other bacteria and function.
b. Bacterial DNA can move into other bacteria and function.
c. Bacterial DNA uses four nucleotides bases that work in pairs.
d. Bacterial DNA is found in a circular chromosome.



Answer: b. Bacterial DNA can move into another bacteria and function.

What would have happened if Avery had added an enzyme that digested all the nucleic acids to the mixture of heat-killed bacteria, added the mixture to harmless bacteria, and injected the mixture into mice?

What would have happened if Avery had added an enzyme that digested all the nucleic acids to the mixture of heat-killed bacteria, added the mixture to harmless bacteria, and injected the mixture into mice?

a. The harmless bacteria would have been transformed, and the mice would have died.
b. The harmless bacteria would not have been transformed, and the mice would have lived.
c. The harmless bacteria would not have been transformed, and the mice would have died.
d. The harmless bacteria would have been transformed, and the mice would have lived.


Answer: b. The harmless bacteria would not have been transformed, and the mice would have lived.

What happened when Griffith injected mice with the harmless, R-strain bacteria alone?

What happened when Griffith injected mice with the harmless, R-strain bacteria alone?

a. The bacteria transformed.
b. The mouse lived.
c. The mouse died.
d. The bacteria died.


Answer: b. The mouse lived.

What did Avery conclude caused transformation?

What did Avery conclude caused transformation?

b. A protein was the transforming factor.
c. Carbohydrate was the transforming factor.
d. A lipid was the transforming factor.


Answer: a. DNA was the transforming factor.

Griffith called the process he observed transformation because

Griffith called the process he observed transformation because

a. the mouse had been transformed.
b. the harmful bacteria had been transformed.
c. the harmless bacteria had been transformed.
d. the experiment had been transformed.


Answer: c. the harmless bacteria had been transformed.

Which bacteria killed the mice in Griffith's transformation experiment?

Which bacteria killed the mice in Griffith's transformation experiment?

a. live, harmless bacteria and heat-killed, harmful bacteria
b. live, harmless bacteria and heat-killed, harmless bacteria
c. live harmful bacteria and heat-killed, harmless bacteria
d. live harmless bacteria, and live, harmful bacteria


Answer: a. live, harmless bacteria and heat-killed, harmful bacteria