In recombinant DNA methods, the term vector can refer to

In recombinant DNA methods, the term vector can refer to  A) the enzyme that cuts DNA into restriction fragments. B) the sticky end of a DNA...

Which of the following sequences in double-stranded DNA is most likely to be recognized as a cutting site for a restriction enzyme?

Which of the following sequences in double-stranded DNA is most likely to be recognized as a cutting site for a restriction enzyme?  A) AAGG TTCC B) AGTC TCAG C) GGCC CCGG D) ACCA TGGT E) AAAA TTTT Answer:...

DNA technology has many medical applications. Which of the following is not done routinely at present?

DNA technology has many medical applications. Which of the following is not done routinely at present?  A) production of hormones for treating...

Expression of a cloned eukaryotic gene in a bacterial cell involves many challenges. The use of mRNA and reverse transcriptase is part of a strategy to solve the problem of

Expression of a cloned eukaryotic gene in a bacterial cell involves many challenges. The use of mRNA and reverse transcriptase is part of a strategy...

A paleontologist has recovered a bit of tissue from the 400-year-old preserved skin of an extinct dodo (a bird). The researcher would like to compare a specific region of the DNA from the sample with DNA from living birds. Which of the following would be most useful for increasing the amount of dodo DNA available for testing?

A paleontologist has recovered a bit of tissue from the 400-year-old preserved skin of an extinct dodo (a bird). The researcher would like to compare...

Plants are more readily manipulated by genetic engineering than are animals because

Plants are more readily manipulated by genetic engineering than are animals because  A) plant genes do not contain introns. B) more vectors are...

Which of the following would not be true of cDNA produced using human brain tissue as the starting material?

Which of the following would not be true of cDNA produced using human brain tissue as the starting material?  A) It could be amplified by the...

Which of the following tools of recombinant DNA technology is incorrectly paired with its use?

Which of the following tools of recombinant DNA technology is incorrectly paired with its use?  A) restriction enzyme-production of RFLPs B)...

As genetic technology makes testing for a wide variety of genotypes possible, which of the following is likely to be an increasingly troublesome issue?

As genetic technology makes testing for a wide variety of genotypes possible, which of the following is likely to be an increasingly troublesome issue?  A)...

One possible use of transgenic plants is in the production of human proteins, such as vaccines. Which of the following is a possible hindrance that must be overcome?

One possible use of transgenic plants is in the production of human proteins, such as vaccines. Which of the following is a possible hindrance that...

Which of the following is one of the technical reasons why gene therapy is problematic?

Which of the following is one of the technical reasons why gene therapy is problematic?  A) Most cells with an engineered gene do not produce...

One successful form of gene therapy has involved delivery of an allele for the enzyme adenosine deaminase (ADA) to bone marrow cells of a child with SCID, and delivery of these engineered cells back to the bone marrow of the affected child. What is one major reason for the success of this procedure as opposed to many other efforts at gene therapy?

One successful form of gene therapy has involved delivery of an allele for the enzyme adenosine deaminase (ADA) to bone marrow cells of a child with...

Scientists developed a set of guidelines to address the safety of DNA technology. Which of the following is one of the adopted safety measures?

Scientists developed a set of guidelines to address the safety of DNA technology. Which of the following is one of the adopted safety measures?  A)...

Genetically engineered plants

Genetically engineered plants  A) are more difficult to engineer than animals. B) include a transgenic rice plant that can help prevent vitamin...

Genetic engineering is being used by the pharmaceutical industry. Which of the following is not currently one of the uses?

Genetic engineering is being used by the pharmaceutical industry. Which of the following is not currently one of the uses?  A) production of...

Gene therapy

Gene therapy  A) has proven to be beneficial to HIV patients. B) involves replacement of a defective allele in sex cells. C) cannot be used...

Which of the following are probably siblings?

Which of the following are probably siblings?  A) A and B B) A and C C) A and D D) C and D E) B and D Answer: ...

Which of the following statements is most likely true?

Which of the following statements is most likely true?  A) D is the child of A and C. B) D is the child of A and B. C) D is the child of B and...

Which of the following statements is consistent with the results?

Which of the following statements is consistent with the results?  A) B is the child of A and C. B) C is the child of A and B. C) D is the child...

A researcher is using adult stem cells and comparing them to other adult cells from the same tissue. Which of the following is a likely finding?

A researcher is using adult stem cells and comparing them to other adult cells from the same tissue. Which of the following is a likely finding?  A)...

Which of the following is true of embryonic stem cells but not of adult stem cells?

Which of the following is true of embryonic stem cells but not of adult stem cells?  A) They can differentiate into many cell types. B) They...

Reproductive cloning of human embryos is generally considered unethical. However, on the subject of therapeutic cloning there is a wider divergence of opinion. Which of the following is a likely explanation?

Reproductive cloning of human embryos is generally considered unethical. However, on the subject of therapeutic cloning there is a wider divergence...

Which of the following problems with animal cloning might result in premature death of the clones?

Which of the following problems with animal cloning might result in premature death of the clones?  A) use of pluripotent instead of totipotent...

In 1997, Dolly the sheep was cloned. Which of the following processes was used?

In 1997, Dolly the sheep was cloned. Which of the following processes was used?  A) use of mitochondrial DNA from adult female cells of another...

Which of the following is most closely identical to the formation of twins?

Which of the following is most closely identical to the formation of twins?  A) cell cloning B) therapeutic cloning C) use of adult stem cells D)...

Which of the following techniques used to analyze gene function depends on the specificity of DNA base complementarity?

Which of the following techniques used to analyze gene function depends on the specificity of DNA base complementarity?  A) Northern blotting B)...

A researcher has used in vitro mutagenesis to mutate a cloned gene and then has reinserted this into a cell. In order to have the mutated sequence disable the function of the gene, what must then occur?

A researcher has used in vitro mutagenesis to mutate a cloned gene and then has reinserted this into a cell. In order to have the mutated sequence disable...

RNAi methodology uses double-stranded pieces of RNA to trigger a breakdown or blocking of mRNA. For which of the following might it more possibly be useful?

RNAi methodology uses double-stranded pieces of RNA to trigger a breakdown or blocking of mRNA. For which of the following might it more possibly be...

Which uses reverse transcriptase to make cDNA followed by amplification?

Which uses reverse transcriptase to make cDNA followed by amplification?  A) Southern blotting B) Northern blotting C) Western blotting D)...

Which describes the transfer of polypeptide sequences to a membrane to analyze gene expression?

Which describes the transfer of polypeptide sequences to a membrane to analyze gene expression? A) Southern blotting B) Northern blotting C) Western...

Which was developed by a British researcher and causes DNA sequences to be transferred to a membrane and identified with a probe?

Which was developed by a British researcher and causes DNA sequences to be transferred to a membrane and identified with a probe?  A) Southern...

DNA microarrays have made a huge impact on genomic studies because they

DNA microarrays have made a huge impact on genomic studies because they  A) can be used to eliminate the function of any gene in the genome. B)...

Dideoxyribonucleotide chain-termination is a method of

Dideoxyribonucleotide chain-termination is a method of  A) cloning DNA. B) sequencing DNA. C) digesting DNA. D) synthesizing DNA. E) separating...

Which of the following procedures would produce RFLPs?

Which of the following procedures would produce RFLPs?  A) incubating a mixture of single-stranded DNA from two closely related species B) incubating...

RFLP analysis can be used to distinguish between alleles based on differences in which of the following?

RFLP analysis can be used to distinguish between alleles based on differences in which of the following?  A) restriction enzyme recognition sites...

DNA fragments from a gel are transferred to a nitrocellulose paper during the procedure called Southern blotting. What is the purpose of transferring the DNA from a gel to a nitrocellulose paper?

DNA fragments from a gel are transferred to a nitrocellulose paper during the procedure called Southern blotting. What is the purpose of transferring...

Which of the following modifications is least likely to alter the rate at which a DNA fragment moves through a gel during electrophoresis?

Which of the following modifications is least likely to alter the rate at which a DNA fragment moves through a gel during electrophoresis?  A)...

In order to identify a specific restriction fragment using a probe, what must be done?

In order to identify a specific restriction fragment using a probe, what must be done?  A) The fragments must be separated by electrophoresis. B)...

Restriction fragments of DNA are typically separated from one another by which process?

Restriction fragments of DNA are typically separated from one another by which process?  A) filtering B) centrifugation C) gel electrophoresis D)...

Which of the following separates molecules by movement due to size and electrical charge?

Which of the following separates molecules by movement due to size and electrical charge?  A) restriction enzymes B) gene cloning C) DNA ligase D)...

Which of the following cuts DNA molecules at specific locations?

Which of the following cuts DNA molecules at specific locations?  A) restriction enzymes B) gene cloning C) DNA ligase D) gel electrophoresis E)...

Which of the following is used to make complementary DNA (cDNA) from RNA?

Which of the following is used to make complementary DNA (cDNA) from RNA?  A) restriction enzymes B) gene cloning C) DNA ligase D) gel electrophoresis E)...

Which of the following seals the sticky ends of restriction fragments to make recombinant DNA?

Which of the following seals the sticky ends of restriction fragments to make recombinant DNA?  A) restriction enzymes B) gene cloning C) DNA...

Which of the following produces multiple identical copies of a gene for basic research or for large-scale production of a gene product?

Which of the following produces multiple identical copies of a gene for basic research or for large-scale production of a gene product?  A)...

The major advantage of using artificial chromosomes such as YACs and BACs for cloning genes is that

The major advantage of using artificial chromosomes such as YACs and BACs for cloning genes is that  A) plasmids are unable to replicate in cells. B)...

To introduce a particular piece of DNA into an animal cell, such as that of a mouse, you would find more probable success with which of the following methods?

To introduce a particular piece of DNA into an animal cell, such as that of a mouse, you would find more probable success with which of the following...

Sequencing an entire genome, such as that of C. elegans, a nematode, is most important because

Sequencing an entire genome, such as that of C. elegans, a nematode, is most important because  A) it allows researchers to use the sequence...

The first cell whose entire genome was sequenced was which of the following?

The first cell whose entire genome was sequenced was which of the following?  A) H. influenzae in 1995 B) H. sapiens in 2001 C) rice in 1955 D)...

A student wishes to clone a sequence of DNA of ~200 kb. Which vector would be appropriate?

A student wishes to clone a sequence of DNA of ~200 kb. Which vector would be appropriate?  A) a plasmid B) a typical bacteriophage C) a BAC D)...

A researcher needs to clone a sequence of part of a eukaryotic genome in order to express the sequence and to modify the polypeptide product. She would be able to satisfy these requirements by using which of the following vectors?

A researcher needs to clone a sequence of part of a eukaryotic genome in order to express the sequence and to modify the polypeptide product. She would...

Which of the following best describes the complete sequence of steps occurring during every cycle of PCR?

Which of the following best describes the complete sequence of steps occurring during every cycle of PCR? 1. The primers hybridize to the target...

Yeast artificial chromosomes contain which of the following elements?

Yeast artificial chromosomes contain which of the following elements?  A) centromere only B) telomeres only C) origin of replication only D)...

How does a genomic library differ from a cDNA library?

How does a genomic library differ from a cDNA library?  A) A genomic library contains only noncoding sequences, whereas a cDNA library contains...

The DNA fragments making up a genomic library are generally contained in

The DNA fragments making up a genomic library are generally contained in  A) recombinant plasmids of bacteria. B) recombinant viral RNA. C)...

Why are yeast cells frequently used as hosts for cloning?

Why are yeast cells frequently used as hosts for cloning?  A) they easily form colonies B) they can remove exons from mRNA. C) they do not have...

A gene that contains introns can be made shorter (but remain functional) for genetic engineering purposes by using

A gene that contains introns can be made shorter (but remain functional) for genetic engineering purposes by using  A) RNA polymerase to transcribe...

A principal problem with inserting an unmodified mammalian gene into a bacterial plasmid, and then getting that gene expressed in bacteria, is that

A principal problem with inserting an unmodified mammalian gene into a bacterial plasmid, and then getting that gene expressed in bacteria, is that  A)...

Bacteria that do not take up any plasmids would grow on which media?

Bacteria that do not take up any plasmids would grow on which media?  A) the nutrient broth only B) the nutrient broth and the tetracycline...

Bacteria containing a plasmid into which the eukaryotic gene has integrated would grow in

Bacteria containing a plasmid into which the eukaryotic gene has integrated would grow in  A) the nutrient broth only. B) the nutrient broth...

Bacteria that contain the plasmid, but not the eukaryotic gene, would grow

Bacteria that contain the plasmid, but not the eukaryotic gene, would grow  A) in the nutrient broth plus ampicillin, but not in the broth containing...

Bacteria containing recombinant plasmids are often identified by which process?

Bacteria containing recombinant plasmids are often identified by which process?  A) examining the cells with an electron microscope B) using...

What is the most logical sequence of steps for splicing foreign DNA into a plasmid and inserting the plasmid into a bacterium?

What is the most logical sequence of steps for splicing foreign DNA into a plasmid and inserting the plasmid into a bacterium? I. Transform bacteria...

How does a bacterial cell protect its own DNA from restriction enzymes?

How does a bacterial cell protect its own DNA from restriction enzymes?  A) adding methyl groups to adenines and cytosines B) using DNA ligase...

What is the enzymatic function of restriction enzymes?

What is the enzymatic function of restriction enzymes?  A) to add new nucleotides to the growing strand of DNA B) to join nucleotides during...

Assume that you are trying to insert a gene into a plasmid. Someone gives you a preparation of genomic DNA that has been cut with restriction enzyme X. The gene you wish to insert has sites on both ends for cutting by restriction enzyme Y. You have a plasmid with a single site for Y, but not for X. Your strategy should be to

Assume that you are trying to insert a gene into a plasmid. Someone gives you a preparation of genomic DNA that has been cut with restriction enzyme...

Which enzyme was used to produce the molecule in Figure 20.1?

Which enzyme was used to produce the molecule in Figure 20.1?  A) ligase B) transcriptase C) a restriction enzyme D) RNA polymerase E) DNA polymerase Answer:...

Most of the exchange surfaces of multicellular animals are lined with

Most of the exchange surfaces of multicellular animals are lined with A) connective tissue. B) smooth muscle cells. C) neural tissue. D) epithelial...

The absorptive epithelia in the gut are considered "polarized" because

The absorptive epithelia in the gut are considered "polarized" because A) thick and thin filaments are present. B) they pump wastes into the lumen...

Of the following choices, the epithelium with the shortest diffusion distance is

Of the following choices, the epithelium with the shortest diffusion distance is A) simple squamous epithelium. B) simple cuboidal epithelium. C)...

An exchange surface in direct contact with the external environment is found in the

An exchange surface in direct contact with the external environment is found in the A) lungs. B) skeletal muscles. C) liver. D) heart. E) brain. Answer:...

Tissues are composed of cells, and tissues functioning together make up

Tissues are composed of cells, and tissues functioning together make up A) organs. B) membranes. C) organ systems. D) organelles. E) organisms. Answer:...

Multicellular organisms must keep their cells awash in an "internal pond" because

Multicellular organisms must keep their cells awash in an "internal pond" because A) their membranes will crystallize if not in contact with interstitial...

Interstitial fluid is

Interstitial fluid is A) the fluid inside the gastrovascular cavity of Hydra. B) the internal environment inside animal cells. C) identical to the...

The specialized function shared by the cells that line the lungs and those that line the lumen of the gut is that both types of cells

The specialized function shared by the cells that line the lungs and those that line the lumen of the gut is that both types of cells A) receive their...

To increase the effectiveness of exchange surfaces lining the lungs and the intestines, evolutionary pressures have

To increase the effectiveness of exchange surfaces lining the lungs and the intestines, evolutionary pressures have A) increased the exchange surface...

As body size increases in animals,

As body size increases in animals, A) there is a decrease in the surface-to-volume ratio. B) reproduction becomes limited to terrestrial environments. C)...

All animals, whether large or small, have

All animals, whether large or small, have A) an external body surface that is dry. B) a basic body plan that resembles a two-layered sac. C) a body...

The specialized structures of complex animals have evolved because

The specialized structures of complex animals have evolved because A) the environment imposes identical problems regardless of where the animals are...

The similar fusiform body shape of diverse animals, such as sharks, penguins, and aquatic mammals, has evolved because

The similar fusiform body shape of diverse animals, such as sharks, penguins, and aquatic mammals, has evolved because A) natural selection typically...

Evolutionary adaptations that help diverse animals directly exchange matter between cells and the environment include

Evolutionary adaptations that help diverse animals directly exchange matter between cells and the environment include A) a gastrovascular activity,...

Penguins, seals, and tuna have body forms that permit rapid swimming, because

Penguins, seals, and tuna have body forms that permit rapid swimming, because A) all share a common ancestor at some point in the past. B) all of...

Which choice best describes a reasonable mechanism for animal structures becoming better suited over evolutionary time to specific functions?

Which choice best describes a reasonable mechanism for animal structures becoming better suited over evolutionary time to specific functions? A) Animals...

If thermoregulation is considered to be a secondary function of the large ears of jackrabbits, then the primary function of the ears is

If thermoregulation is considered to be a secondary function of the large ears of jackrabbits, then the primary function of the ears is A) to optimize...

When the temperature of the outside air exceeds their internal body temperature, jackrabbits living in hot, arid lands will

When the temperature of the outside air exceeds their internal body temperature, jackrabbits living in hot, arid lands will A) dilate the blood vessels...

Which of the following characteristics indicates that mollusks are more closely related to arthropods than to chordates?

Which of the following characteristics indicates that mollusks are more closely related to arthropods than to chordates? A) Presence of a skeleton B)...

Many parasitic flatworms have an intermediate host. This indicates that the

Many parasitic flatworms have an intermediate host. This indicates that the A) flatworms cannot infect humans B) larval flatworms infect one species,...

Members of which of the following animal groups were among the first to inhabit land and were ancestors of the reptiles?

Members of which of the following animal groups were among the first to inhabit land and were ancestors of the reptiles? A) Amphibia B) Arthropoda C)...

In animals, all of the following are associated with embryonic development EXCEPT

In animals, all of the following are associated with embryonic development EXCEPT A) migration of cells to specific areas B) formation of germ layers C)...

All of the following are deuterostomes EXCEPT

All of the following are deuterostomes EXCEPT A) mollusks B) reptiles C) amphibians D) echinoderms E) mammals Answer: ...

In a mammalian embryo, the somites give rise to

In a mammalian embryo, the somites give rise to A) the notochord B) the central nervous system C) the lining of the mouth D) the eyes E) muscles...

If an invertebrate possesses nephridia as an excretory system, skin as a gas exchange system, and a closed circulatory system, the animal is most likely to be

If an invertebrate possesses nephridia as an excretory system, skin as a gas exchange system, and a closed circulatory system, the animal is most likely...

Which of the following describes the correct sequence of stages during embryogenesis?

Which of the following describes the correct sequence of stages during embryogenesis? A) Cleavage, blastula formation, gastrulation B) Cleavage, gastrulation,...

Which process establishes the primary germ layers.

Which process establishes the primary germ layers. Answer: Gastrulati...

Vertebrates became truly terrestrial with the development of the amniotic egg in

Vertebrates became truly terrestrial with the development of the amniotic egg in A) Fish B) Amphibians C) Reptiles D) Birds E) Mammals Answer:...

The drug cytochalasin B blocks the function of actin. Which of the following aspects of the cell cycle would be most disrupted by cytochalasin B?

The drug cytochalasin B blocks the function of actin. Which of the following aspects of the cell cycle would be most disrupted by cytochalasin B?  A)...

A particular cell has half as much DNA as some other cells in a mitotically active tissue. The cell in question is most likely in

A particular cell has half as much DNA as some other cells in a mitotically active tissue. The cell in question is most likely in  A) G1. B)...

Which of the following does not occur during mitosis?

Which of the following does not occur during mitosis?  A) condensation of the chromosomes B) replication of the DNA C) separation of sister chromatids D)...

In the cells of some organisms, mitosis occurs without cytokinesis. This will result in

In the cells of some organisms, mitosis occurs without cytokinesis. This will result in  A) cells with more than one nucleus. B) cells that...

The decline of MPF activity at the end of mitosis is due to

The decline of MPF activity at the end of mitosis is due to  A) the destruction of the protein kinase Cdk. B) decreased synthesis of Cdk. C)...

One difference between cancer cells and normal cells is that cancer cells

One difference between cancer cells and normal cells is that cancer cells  A) are unable to synthesize DNA. B) are arrested at the S phase of...

Vinblastine is a standard chemotherapeutic drug used to treat cancer. Because it interferes with the assembly of microtubules, its effectiveness must be related to

Vinblastine is a standard chemotherapeutic drug used to treat cancer. Because it interferes with the assembly of microtubules, its effectiveness must...

Through a microscope, you can see a cell plate beginning to develop across the middle of a cell and nuclei forming on either side of the cell plate. This cell is most likely

Through a microscope, you can see a cell plate beginning to develop across the middle of a cell and nuclei forming on either side of the cell plate....

A student is looking through his light microscope (~450 X) at a squashed and stained onion root tip. Some, but not all, of the cells have clearly visible chromosome strands.

When a cell is in anaphase of mitosis, which of the following will he see?  A) a clear area in the center of the cell B) chromosomes clustered...

The research team established similar lymphocyte cultures from a number of human donors, including healthy teenagers of both genders, patients already suffering from long-term bacterial infections, and elderly volunteers. They found that the increase in lymphocyte incorporation after pathogen introduction was slightly lower in some of the female teenagers and significantly lower in each of the elderly persons. They repeated the study with a larger number of samples but got the same results.

What might be among the research team's conclusions?  A) The young women showed these results because they have poorer nutrition. B) The elderly...

Nucleotides can be radiolabeled before they are incorporated into newly forming DNA and can therefore be assayed to track their incorporation. In a set of experiments, a student—faculty research team used labeled T nucleotides and introduced these into the culture of dividing human cells at specific times.

Which of the following questions might be answered by such a method? A) How many cells are produced by the culture per hour? B) What is the length...

Several organisms, primarily protists, have what are called intermediate mitotic organization.

Several organisms, primarily protists, have what are called intermediate mitotic organization.  These protists are intermediate in what sense?  A)...

MPF reaches its threshold concentration at the end of this stage.

MPF reaches its threshold concentration at the end of this stage.  A) I B) II C) III D) IV E) V Answer:...

At which of the numbered regions would you expect to find cells at metaphase?

At which of the numbered regions would you expect to find cells at metaphase?  A) I and IV B) II only C) III only D) IV only E) V only Answer:...

Which number represents the point in the cell cycle during which the chromosomes are replicated?

Which number represents the point in the cell cycle during which the chromosomes are replicated?  A) I B) II C) III D) IV E) V Answer:...

Which number represents DNA synthesis?

Which number represents DNA synthesis?  A) I B) II C) III D) IV E) V Answer:...

G1 is represented by which numbered part(s) of the cycle?

G1 is represented by which numbered part(s) of the cycle?  A) I or V B) II or IV C) III only D) IV only E) V only Answer:...

If the cell whose nuclear material is shown in Figure 12.2 continues toward completion of mitosis, which of the following events would occur next?

If the cell whose nuclear material is shown in Figure 12.2 continues toward completion of mitosis, which of the following events would occur next?  A)...

What is the correct chromosomal condition at the prometaphase of mitosis?

The lettered circle in Figure 12.1 shows a diploid nucleus with four chromosomes. There are two pairs of homologous chromosomes, one long and the other...

You have a series of cells, all of which were derived from tumors, and you first need to find out which ones are malignant. What could you do?

You have a series of cells, all of which were derived from tumors, and you first need to find out which ones are malignant. What could you do?  A)...

For a chemotherapeutic drug to be useful for treating cancer cells, which of the following is most desirable?

For a chemotherapeutic drug to be useful for treating cancer cells, which of the following is most desirable?  A) It is safe enough to limit...

A research team began a study of a cultured cell line. Their preliminary observations showed them that the cell line did not exhibit either density-dependent inhibition or anchorage dependence. What could they conclude right away?

A research team began a study of a cultured cell line. Their preliminary observations showed them that the cell line did not exhibit either density-dependent...

What explains anchorage dependence of animal cells in vitro or in vivo?

What explains anchorage dependence of animal cells in vitro or in vivo?  A) attachment of spindle fibers to centrioles B) response of the plasma...

At the M phase checkpoint, the complex allows for what to occur?

At the M phase checkpoint, the complex allows for what to occur?  A) Separase enzyme cleaves cohesins and allows chromatids to separate. B) Cohesins...

All cell cycle checkpoints are similar in which way?

All cell cycle checkpoints are similar in which way?  A) They respond to the same cyclins. B) They utilize the same Cdks. C) They give the go-ahead...

Which of the following most accurately describes a cyclin?

Which of the following most accurately describes a cyclin?  A) It is present in similar concentrations throughout the cell cycle. B) It is activated...

Why do neurons and some other specialized cells divide infrequently?

Why do neurons and some other specialized cells divide infrequently?  A) They no longer have active nuclei. B) They no longer carry receptors...

After which checkpoint is the cell first committed to continue the cell cycle through M?

After which checkpoint is the cell first committed to continue the cell cycle through M?  A) G0 B) G1 C) G2 D) S E) previous M Answer:...

Besides the ability of some cancer cells to overproliferate, what else could logically result in a tumor?

Besides the ability of some cancer cells to overproliferate, what else could logically result in a tumor?  A) metastasis B) changes in the...

Cells from an advanced malignant tumor most often have very abnormal chromosomes, and often an abnormal total number of chromosomes. Why might this occur?

Cells from an advanced malignant tumor most often have very abnormal chromosomes, and often an abnormal total number of chromosomes. Why might this...

A particular cyclin called cyclin E forms a complex with Cdk 2 (cyclin-dependent kinase 2). This complex is important for the progression of the cell from G1 into the S phase of the cell cycle. Which of the following statements is correct?

A particular cyclin called cyclin E forms a complex with Cdk 2 (cyclin-dependent kinase 2). This complex is important for the progression of the cell...

Which of the following describe(s) cyclin-dependent kinase (Cdk)?

Which of the following describe(s) cyclin-dependent kinase (Cdk)?  A) Cdk is inactive, or "turned off," in the presence of cyclin. B) Cdk is...

Which of the following is true concerning cancer cells?

Which of the following is true concerning cancer cells?  A) They do not exhibit density-dependent inhibition when growing in culture. B) When...

Density-dependent inhibition is explained by which of the following?

Density-dependent inhibition is explained by which of the following?  A) As cells become more numerous, they begin to squeeze against each...

A mutation results in a cell that no longer produces a normal protein kinase for the M phase checkpoint. Which of the following would likely be the immediate result of this mutation?

A mutation results in a cell that no longer produces a normal protein kinase for the M phase checkpoint. Which of the following would likely be the...

The MPF protein complex turns itself off by

The MPF protein complex turns itself off by  A) activating a process that destroys cyclin components. B) activating an enzyme that stimulates...

Proteins that are involved in the regulation of the cell cycle, and that show fluctuations in concentration during the cell cycle, are called

Proteins that are involved in the regulation of the cell cycle, and that show fluctuations in concentration during the cell cycle, are called  A)...

The cyclin component of MPF is destroyed toward the end of which phase?

The cyclin component of MPF is destroyed toward the end of which phase?  A) G0 B) G1 C) S D) G2 E) M Answer:...

Which of the following triggers the cell's passage past the G2 checkpoint into mitosis?

Which of the following triggers the cell's passage past the G2 checkpoint into mitosis?  A) PDGF B) MPF C) protein kinase D) cyclin E) Cdk Answer:...

Which of the following is a protein maintained at constant levels throughout the cell cycle that requires cyclin to become catalytically active?

Which of the following is a protein maintained at constant levels throughout the cell cycle that requires cyclin to become catalytically active?  A)...

Which of the following is a protein synthesized at specific times during the cell cycle that associates with a kinase to form a catalytically active complex?

Which of the following is a protein synthesized at specific times during the cell cycle that associates with a kinase to form a catalytically active...

Which of the following is released by platelets in the vicinity of an injury?

Which of the following is released by platelets in the vicinity of an injury?  A) PDGF B) MPF C) protein kinase D) cyclin E) Cdk Answer:...

What causes the decrease in the amount of cyclin at a specific point in the cell cycle?

What causes the decrease in the amount of cyclin at a specific point in the cell cycle?  A) an increase in production once the restriction point...

A plant-derived protein known as colchicine can be used to poison cells by blocking the formation of the spindle. Which of the following would result if colchicine is added to a sample of cells in G2?

A plant-derived protein known as colchicine can be used to poison cells by blocking the formation of the spindle. Which of the following would result...

You have the technology necessary to measure each of the following in a sample of animal cells: chlorophylls, organelle density, picograms of DNA, cell wall components, and enzymatic activity. Which would you expect to increase significantly from M to G1?

You have the technology necessary to measure each of the following in a sample of animal cells: chlorophylls, organelle density, picograms of DNA, cell...

Using which of the following techniques would enable your lab group to distinguish between a cell in G2 and a cell from the same organism in G1?

Using which of the following techniques would enable your lab group to distinguish between a cell in G2 and a cell from the same organism in G1?  A)...

Which of the following proteins are involved in binary fission as well as eukaryotic mitotic division?

Which of the following proteins are involved in binary fission as well as eukaryotic mitotic division?  A) cyclins B) Cdks C) MPF D) actin and...

What is a cleavage furrow?

What is a cleavage furrow?  A) a ring of vesicles forming a cell plate B) the separation of divided prokaryotes C) a groove in the plasma membrane...

Which of the following is (are) required for motor proteins to function in the movement of chromosomes toward the poles of the mitotic spindle?

Which of the following is (are) required for motor proteins to function in the movement of chromosomes toward the poles of the mitotic spindle? A)...

Which of the following was a discovery that had to be made before human chromosomes could be correctly counted?

Which of the following was a discovery that had to be made before human chromosomes could be correctly counted?  A) how to use a hypotonic solution...

During which phase of mitosis do the chromatids become chromosomes?

During which phase of mitosis do the chromatids become chromosomes?  A) telophase B) anaphase C) prophase D) metaphase E) cytokinesis Answer:...

Which of the following is a function of those spindle microtubules that do not attach to kinetochores?

Which of the following is a function of those spindle microtubules that do not attach to kinetochores?  A) maintaining an appropriate spacing...

Which of the following best describes how chromosomes move toward the poles of the spindle during mitosis?

Which of the following best describes how chromosomes move toward the poles of the spindle during mitosis?  A) The chromosomes are "reeled...

Why do chromosomes coil during mitosis?

Why do chromosomes coil during mitosis?  A) to increase their potential energy B) to allow the chromosomes to move without becoming entangled...

For anaphase to begin, which of the following must occur?

For anaphase to begin, which of the following must occur?  A) Chromatids must lose their kinetochores. B) Cohesin must attach the sister chromatids...

A group of cells is assayed for DNA content immediately following mitosis and is found to have an average of 8 picograms of DNA per nucleus. How many picograms would be found at the end of S and the end of G2?

A group of cells is assayed for DNA content immediately following mitosis and is found to have an average of 8 picograms of DNA per nucleus. How many...

Measurements of the amount of DNA per nucleus were taken on a large number of cells from a growing fungus. The measured DNA levels ranged from 3 to 6 picograms per nucleus. In which stage of the cell cycle did the nucleus contain 6 picograms of DNA?

Measurements of the amount of DNA per nucleus were taken on a large number of cells from a growing fungus. The measured DNA levels ranged from 3 to...

Movement of the chromosomes during anaphase would be most affected by a drug that

Movement of the chromosomes during anaphase would be most affected by a drug that  A) reduces cyclin concentrations. B) increases cyclin concentrations. C)...

In which group of eukaryotic organisms does the nuclear envelope remain intact during mitosis?

In which group of eukaryotic organisms does the nuclear envelope remain intact during mitosis?  A) seedless plants B) dinoflagellates C) diatoms D)...

Which of the following are primarily responsible for cytokinesis in plant cells but not in animal cells?

Which of the following are primarily responsible for cytokinesis in plant cells but not in animal cells?  A) kinetochores B) Golgi-derived vesicles C)...

Taxol is an anticancer drug extracted from the Pacific yew tree. In animal cells, Taxol disrupts microtubule formation by binding to microtubules and accelerating their assembly from the protein precursor, tubulin. Surprisingly, this stops mitosis. Specifically, Taxol must affect

Taxol is an anticancer drug extracted from the Pacific yew tree. In animal cells, Taxol disrupts microtubule formation by binding to microtubules and...

Where do the microtubules of the spindle originate during mitosis in both plant and animal cells?

Where do the microtubules of the spindle originate during mitosis in both plant and animal cells?  A) centromere B) centrosome C) centriole D)...

If there are 20 centromeres in a cell at anaphase, how many chromosomes are there in each daughter cell following cytokinesis?

If there are 20 centromeres in a cell at anaphase, how many chromosomes are there in each daughter cell following cytokinesis?  A) 10 B) 20 C)...

If cells in the process of dividing are subjected to colchicine, a drug that interferes with the formation of the spindle apparatus, at which stage will mitosis be arrested?

If cells in the process of dividing are subjected to colchicine, a drug that interferes with the formation of the spindle apparatus, at which stage...

At which phase are centrioles beginning to move apart in animal cells?

At which phase are centrioles beginning to move apart in animal cells?  A) telophase B) anaphase C) prometaphase D) metaphase E) prophase Answer:...

Suppose a biologist can separate one of a dozen pieces of chromatin from a eukaryotic (animal) nucleus. It might consist of which of the following?

Suppose a biologist can separate one of a dozen pieces of chromatin from a eukaryotic (animal) nucleus. It might consist of which of the following? A)...

For a newly evolving protist, what would be the advantage of using eukaryote-like cell division rather than binary fission?

For a newly evolving protist, what would be the advantage of using eukaryote-like cell division rather than binary fission?  A) Binary fission...

If there are 20 chromatids in a cell, how many centromeres are there?

If there are 20 chromatids in a cell, how many centromeres are there?  A) 10 B) 20 C) 30 D) 40 E) 80 Answer:...

Starting with a fertilized egg (zygote), a series of five cell divisions would produce an early embryo with how many cells?

Starting with a fertilized egg (zygote), a series of five cell divisions would produce an early embryo with how many cells?  A) 4 B) 8 C) 16 D)...

The centromere is a region in which

The centromere is a region in which  A) chromatids remain attached to one another until anaphase. B) metaphase chromosomes become aligned at...